

InterviewSolution
Saved Bookmarks
1. |
A mapping f : X → Y is one one if __________(a) f(x1) ≠ f(x2) for all x1, x2 in X(b) If f(x1) = f(x2) then x1 = x2 for all x1, x2 in X(c) f(x1) = f(x2) for all x1, x2 in X(d) None of the mentionedI got this question in an international level competition.I want to ask this question from Number of Functions topic in portion Basic Structures: Sets, Functions, Sequences, Sums and Matrices of Discrete Mathematics |
Answer» The correct choice is (B) If f(X1) = f(X2) then x1 = x2 for all x1, x2 in X |
|