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A mapping f : X → Y is one one if __________(a) f(x1) ≠ f(x2) for all x1, x2 in X(b) If f(x1) = f(x2) then x1 = x2 for all x1, x2 in X(c) f(x1) = f(x2) for all x1, x2 in X(d) None of the mentionedI got this question in an international level competition.I want to ask this question from Number of Functions topic in portion Basic Structures: Sets, Functions, Sequences, Sums and Matrices of Discrete Mathematics

Answer»

The correct choice is (B) If f(X1) = f(X2) then x1 = x2 for all x1, x2 in X

The explanation is: In one one function EVERY element in A should have UNIQUE image in B,thus if two image are equal this means there preimages are same.



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