A violin note and a sitar note may have the same frequency and yet we can distinguish between the two notes, Explain?

A violin note and a sitar note may have the same frequency and yet we

1.	A violin note and a sitar note may have the same frequency and yet we can distinguish between the two notes, Explain?
Answer» SOLUTION :This is due to the fact that OVERTONES produced by the two SOURCES MAY be different. in other words the quality of sound produced by the two instruments same fundamental friquancy is different.