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After reaching the point of equilibrium, consumer would not like to change his allocation of expenditure on Goods X and Y ever if price of Good X changes. Do you agree ? Comment |
Answer» <html><body><p></p>Solution :No, I do not agree with the <a href="https://interviewquestions.tuteehub.com/tag/given-473447" style="font-weight:bold;" target="_blank" title="Click to know more about GIVEN">GIVEN</a> statement. A consumer achieves equilibrium when `(MU_(X))/(P_(X)) = (MU_(Y))/(P_(Y))` <br/> Now, if price of Good `X (P_(x))` charges, then the equilibrium condition will be disturbed. <br/> In case `P_(x)` increase, `(MU_(X))/(P_(X)) lt (MU_(Y))/(P_(Y))`. This <a href="https://interviewquestions.tuteehub.com/tag/would-3285927" style="font-weight:bold;" target="_blank" title="Click to know more about WOULD">WOULD</a> <a href="https://interviewquestions.tuteehub.com/tag/induce-499186" style="font-weight:bold;" target="_blank" title="Click to know more about INDUCE">INDUCE</a> the consumer to buy more of Y in <a href="https://interviewquestions.tuteehub.com/tag/place-1155224" style="font-weight:bold;" target="_blank" title="Click to know more about PLACE">PLACE</a> of X. <br/> In case `P_(x)` decrease, `(MU_(X))/(P_(X)) <a href="https://interviewquestions.tuteehub.com/tag/gt-1013864" style="font-weight:bold;" target="_blank" title="Click to know more about GT">GT</a> (MU_(Y))/(P_(Y))`. This would induce the consumer to buy more of X in place of Y.</body></html> | |