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After reaching the point of equilibrium, consumer would not like to change his allocation of expenditure on Goods X and Y ever if price of Good X changes. Do you agree ? Comment |
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Answer» Solution :No, I do not agree with the GIVEN statement. A consumer achieves equilibrium when `(MU_(X))/(P_(X)) = (MU_(Y))/(P_(Y))` Now, if price of Good `X (P_(x))` charges, then the equilibrium condition will be disturbed. In case `P_(x)` increase, `(MU_(X))/(P_(X)) lt (MU_(Y))/(P_(Y))`. This WOULD INDUCE the consumer to buy more of Y in PLACE of X. In case `P_(x)` decrease, `(MU_(X))/(P_(X)) GT (MU_(Y))/(P_(Y))`. This would induce the consumer to buy more of X in place of Y. |
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