1.

Consider f : {4, 5, 6} → {p, q, r} given by f (4) = p, f (5) = q, f (6) = r. Find the inverse of f i.e., f –1 and show that (f –1) –1 = f.

Answer»

Given, 

f : {4, 5, 6} → {p, q, r} such that 

f(4) = p, f (5) = q, f (6) = r 

⇒ f = {4, p), (5, q), (6, r)} (f defined by ordered pairs)

⇒ f is one-one and onto 

⇒ f –1 exists 

⇒ f –1 = {(p, 4), (q, 5), (r, 6)} 

(∵ components of ordered pains are interchanged in case of inverse functions) 

⇒ (f –1) –1 = {(4, p), (5, q), (6, r)} 

= f



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