InterviewSolution
Saved Bookmarks
| 1. |
If `(2+sinx)(dy)/(dx)+(y+1)cosx=0andy(0)=1,` then `y((pi)/(2))` is equal toA. `(4)/(3)`B. `(1)/(3)`C. `(-2)/(3)`D. `(-1)/(3)` |
| Answer» Correct Answer - B | |