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| 1. |
If A = 1/pi [(sin^(-1)(xpi),tan^(-1)(x/pi)),(sin^(-1)(x/pi),cot^(-1)(pix))] B = 1/pi [(-cos^(-1)(xpi),tan^(-1)(x/pi)),(sin^(-1)(x/pi),-tan^(-1)(pix))] then A-Bis equal to : |
| Answer» ANSWER :D | |