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If f(g(x)) = x and g(f(x)) = x then g(x) is the inverse of f(x) . (g'(x))f'(x) = 1 implies g'(f(x))=1/(f'(x)) Let us consider a real value bijective function g(x)sun that g'(x) = sin^2 (x+pi/4) +2 cos (x -pi/4) and g(pi/4) =3 then value of (g^(-1))(3) is |
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Answer» `1/5` |
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