1.

If f(x)=sin{cot−1(x+1)}−cos(tan−1x)and v=cos(tan−1(sin(cot−1x))) then the value of v2 for f(x) = 0 is equal to

Answer»

If f(x)=sin{cot1(x+1)}cos(tan1x)and v=cos(tan1(sin(cot1x))) then the value of v2 for f(x) = 0 is equal to



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