1.

If fn(x)=lnlnln⋯lnx(ln is repeated n -times), then ∫[xf1(x)f2(x)⋯fn(x)]−1dx is equal to(where C is constant of integration)

Answer»

If fn(x)=lnlnlnlnx(ln is repeated n -times), then [xf1(x)f2(x)fn(x)]1dx is equal to

(where C is constant of integration)



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