1.

If int _(0) ^(pi) ((x )/( 1 + sin x ))^(2) dx = lamda then show that int _(0) ^(x) ( 2x ^(2) cos ^(2) (x//2))/( (1+ sin x )^(2))dx = lamda + 2pi-pi^(2).

Answer»


Answer :HENCE `1 = LAMDA -2PI + pi^(2)`


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