1.

If \(tan^{-1}(1+x)+tan^{-1}(1-x)=\frac{\pi}{2}\) then x = ?A. 1B. -1C. 0D. \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Answer»

Correct Answer is (C) 0

Since we know that tan-1 x + tan-1 y = \(tan^{-1}(\frac{x+y}{1-xy})\) 

⇒ \(tan^{-1}(1+x)+tan^{-1}(1-x)\)\(=tan^{-1}(\frac{(1+x)+(1-x)}{1-(1+x)(1-x)})\)

= tan-1 \((\frac{2}{1-(1-x^2)})\)

= tan-1\((\frac{2}{x^2})\)

Here since \(tan^{-1}(1+x)+tan^{-1}(1-x)=\frac{\pi}{2}\) 

⇒  tan-1\((\frac{2}{x^2})\) = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)

⇒ tan-1\((\frac{2}{x^2})\)= tan-1\((\infty)\) \((\because tan\frac{\pi}{2}=\infty)\)

⇒ \(\frac{2}{x^2}=\infty\)

⇒ \(x^2=\frac{2}{\infty}\)

⇒ x = 0



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