Saved Bookmarks
| 1. |
If \(tan^{-1}(1+x)+tan^{-1}(1-x)=\frac{\pi}{2}\) then x = ?A. 1B. -1C. 0D. \(\frac{1}{2}\) |
|
Answer» Correct Answer is (C) 0 Since we know that tan-1 x + tan-1 y = \(tan^{-1}(\frac{x+y}{1-xy})\) ⇒ \(tan^{-1}(1+x)+tan^{-1}(1-x)\)\(=tan^{-1}(\frac{(1+x)+(1-x)}{1-(1+x)(1-x)})\) = tan-1 \((\frac{2}{1-(1-x^2)})\) = tan-1\((\frac{2}{x^2})\) Here since \(tan^{-1}(1+x)+tan^{-1}(1-x)=\frac{\pi}{2}\) ⇒ tan-1\((\frac{2}{x^2})\) = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) ⇒ tan-1\((\frac{2}{x^2})\)= tan-1\((\infty)\) \((\because tan\frac{\pi}{2}=\infty)\) ⇒ \(\frac{2}{x^2}=\infty\) ⇒ \(x^2=\frac{2}{\infty}\) ⇒ x = 0 |
|