InterviewSolution
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If the inverse of implication p rarr q is defined as ~p rarr ~q, then the inverse of the proposition (p ^^ ~q) rarr r is not equivalent to : I : ~r rarr p vv q II : ~p vv ~q rarr ~r III : r rarr p ^^ ~q The true statements in the above are : |
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Answer» I, II only |
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