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Let f(x) be an invertible function such that f′(x)>0 and f′′(x)>0 for all x∈R, then which of the following is/are correct ? (where x1,x2,⋯,xn are different points) |
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Answer» Let f(x) be an invertible function such that f′(x)>0 and f′′(x)>0 for all x∈R, then which of the following is/are correct ? |
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