1.

Let x=cost∫0(z2−1)cos2zdz and y=sin2t∫0z2(sin2√1−z)dz,t∈(0,π2), then dydx is equal to

Answer»

Let x=cost∫0(z2−1)cos2zdz and y=sin2t∫0z2(sin2√1−z)dz,t∈(0,π2), then dydx is equal to



Discussion

No Comment Found