1.

Prove that int_(0)^(1) ("arc cosx")^(n) dx = n ((pi)/(2))^(n-1) - n (n - 1) int_(0)^(1) ("arc cos x")^(n-1) dx (n gt 1)

Answer»


ANSWER :`u = ("arc cos X) ^(n-1)` the SECOND time.


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