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Show that the function f:R∗→R∗ defined by f(x)=1x is one-one, where R∗ is the set of all non-zero real numbers. Is the result true, if the domain R∗ is replaced by N with co-domain being same as R∗? |
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Answer» Show that the function f:R∗→R∗ defined by f(x)=1x is one-one, where R∗ is the set of all non-zero real numbers. Is the result true, if the domain R∗ is replaced by N with co-domain being same as R∗? |
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