1.

Show that the function f:R∗→R∗ defined by f(x)=1x is one-one, where R∗ is the set of all non-zero real numbers. Is the result true, if the domain R∗ is replaced by N with co-domain being same as R∗?

Answer»

Show that the function f:RR defined by f(x)=1x is one-one, where R is the set of all non-zero real numbers. Is the result true, if the domain R is replaced by N with co-domain being same as R?



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