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The moment of inertia of a uniform rod about a perpendicular axis passing through one end is `I_(1)`. The same rod is bent into a ring and its moment of inertia about a diameter is `I_(2)`. Then `I_(1)//I_(2)` isA. `(pi^(2))/(3)`B. `(2pi^(2))/(3)`C. `(4pi^(2))/(3)`D. `(8pi^(2))/(3)` |
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Answer» `I_(1)=(ML^(2))/(3)` `L=2piRimplies R=(L)/(2pi)` `I_(2)=(1)/(2)MR^(2)=(1)/(2)M((L)/(2pi))^(2)=(ML^(2))/(8pi^(2))` `(I_(1))/(I_(2))=(8pi^(2))/(3)` |
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