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Why is a firm under perfect competition a price taker and not a price maker? Explain |
Answer» <html><body><p></p>Solution :The no. of <a href="https://interviewquestions.tuteehub.com/tag/sellers-1200267" style="font-weight:bold;" target="_blank" title="Click to know more about SELLERS">SELLERS</a> is so <a href="https://interviewquestions.tuteehub.com/tag/large-1066424" style="font-weight:bold;" target="_blank" title="Click to know more about LARGE">LARGE</a> that the share of each seller is <a href="https://interviewquestions.tuteehub.com/tag/insignificant-1045929" style="font-weight:bold;" target="_blank" title="Click to know more about INSIGNIFICANT">INSIGNIFICANT</a> in the total supply. Hence, an individual seller cannot influence the market price. Similarly, a single buyer's share in total purchase is so insignificant because of their large no. that an individual buyer cannot influence the market price. Under such <a href="https://interviewquestions.tuteehub.com/tag/conditions-424384" style="font-weight:bold;" target="_blank" title="Click to know more about CONDITIONS">CONDITIONS</a>, price of a commodity is determined by the market forces of demand and supply and each buyer and seller has to accept the same price. As a <a href="https://interviewquestions.tuteehub.com/tag/result-1187343" style="font-weight:bold;" target="_blank" title="Click to know more about RESULT">RESULT</a>, uniform price prevails in the market.</body></html> | |