1.

Would the maximum possible magnetisation of a paramagnetic sample be of the same order of magnitude as the magnetisation of a ferromagnet?

Answer»

Yes, a paramagnetic sample with saturated magnetisation will have the same order of magnetisation as the magnetisation of a ferromagnetic substance. However, the saturated magnetisation will require magnetising field too high to achive. Further, there may be a minor difference in the strengths of the atomic dipoles of paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials.



Discussion

No Comment Found

Related InterviewSolutions