This section includes 7 InterviewSolutions, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Current Affairs knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.
| 1. |
Identify the soil type from the hints given a. Generally fertile and dark brown or black in colour b. Seen on river banks and coastal plains. c. Dry and salty d. Formed by the disintegration of igneous rocks called basalt. e. Soil with iron content f. Soil formed in monsoon climatic region. |
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Answer» a. Mountain soil b. Alluvial soil c. Desert soil d. Black soil e. Red soil f. Laterite soil |
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| 2. |
A fertile agricultural soil appears deep coloured at the surface as compared to soil one metre down. The reason for colour of top soil isA. More moistureB. Rich in organic matterC. Rich in iron, calcium and magnesiumD. Recent formation |
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Answer» Correct Answer - B (B) A fertile agricultural soil appears deep coloured at the surface as compared to soil one metre down. The reason for colour of top soil is rich in organic matter. |
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| 3. |
Diurnal change in flower & leafs is known as(1) Nyctinasty or sleep movement (2) Haptonasty (3) Photonasty (4) None |
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Answer» (1) Nyctinasty or sleep movement |
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| 4. |
Explain why transition elements have manuy irregularties in their electronic configuration. |
| Answer» In the transition elements, the `(n-1)` d subshell and ns subshell have very small difference in energy. The incoming electron may enter into ns or `(n-1)` di subshell. Hence, they show irregularities in their electronic configuration. | |
| 5. |
Which one of the plant growth regulators would you use if you are asked to: 1. Induce rooting in a twig 2. Quickly ripen a fruit 3. Delay leaf senescence 4. ‘bolt’ a rosette plant 5. Induce immediate stomatal closure in leaves. |
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Answer» 1. auxin 2. ethylene 3. cytokinin 4. gibberellins 5. ABA |
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| 6. |
‘Both growth and differentiation in higher plants are open’. Comment. |
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Answer» Theoretically, growth and dierentiation in higher plants are open. This means that there is no limit to the ‘extent a plant part can grow. But it is more correct to say that development and differentiation is open in higher plants. Once a cell loses its capacity to divide then it differentiates. Differentiation is the process by which a particular plant starts doing the job it is meant to do. For example, the job of a leaf is to make food for plant. Sometimes environment or a particular phase of growth can dictate a particular part to behave differently. This is the phase when re-differentiation occurs and the plant part takes on a new role. Thus, it can be said that development and differentiation are open to change under the given environmental conditions and demands of those conditions. |
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| 7. |
Which one of the plant growth regulators would you use if you are asked to: 1. induce rooting in a twig 2. quickly ripen a fruit 3. delay leaf senescence 4. induce growth in axillary buds 5. ‘bolt’ a rosette plant 6. induce immediate stomatal closure in leaves |
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Answer» 1. Auxins 2. Ethylene 3. Cytokinins 4. Auxins 5. Gibberellins 6. Abscisic Acid |
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| 8. |
What would be expected to happen if: 1. GA is applied to rice seedlings2. dividing cells stop differentiating 3. a rotten fruit gets mixed with unripe fruits 4. you forget to add cytokinin to the culture medium |
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Answer» 1. GA increases the length of axis. This property will help increase the length of axis so that yield of rice can be increased. 2. When dividing cells stop differentiating then it is the maturity stage of that part of the plant. Further growth of that particular region will be stopped. 3. The ethylene present in rotten fruit will hasten the ripening process of unripe fruit and may lead to premature ripening. 4. There will be lesser cell division and culture will not grow as per the target. |
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| 9. |
Would a defoliated plant respond to the photoperiodic cycle? Why? |
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Answer» The hormone responsible for photoperiodism is found in leaves. So a defoliated plant will be devoid of such hormones and will not respond to the photoperiodic cycle. |
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| 10. |
What would happen when you grow a recombinant in a bioreactor but forget to add antibiotic to the medium in which the recombinant is growing. |
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Answer» In the absence of antibiotic, there will be no pressure on recombinants to retain the plasmid (containing the gene of your interest). Since, maintaining a high copy number of plasmids is a metabolic burden to the microbial cells, will thus tend to lose the plasmid. |
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| 11. |
Name the genetic disorder caused by trisomy of 21st chromosome |
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Answer» down's syndrome Down syndrome is a genetic disorder caused when abnormal cell division results in an extra full or partial copy of chromosome 21. This extra genetic material causes the developmental changes and physical features of Down syndrome.
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| 12. |
State the composition and principle of oral pills as a contraceptive measure taking the example of Saheli. |
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Answer» The composition of oral pills comprises: Either progestogens alone or progestogen – estrogen combination saheli is a Non-steroidal preparation. It inhibits ovulation and implantation. It also alters the quality of cervical mucus to prevent/ retard the entry of sperms. |
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| 13. |
Explain four advantages of mycorrhizal association to plants. |
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Answer» The fungal symbiontin in mycorrhizal associations with plants: i. absorbs phosphorus from soil and passes it to the plant. ii. provides resistance to root-borne pathogens, iii. enhances tolerance to salinity and drought, iv. induces an overall increase in plant growth and development. |
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| 14. |
Karyotype of a child shows trisomy of chromosome number 21. Identify the disorder and state the symptoms which are likely to be exhibited in this case. |
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Answer» Disorder- Down’s Syndrome Symptoms: The affected individual is short statured with small round head; has furrowed tongue; partially open mouth; Palm is broad with characteristic palm crease; Physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarded. |
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| 15. |
Assertion`:-` Members of Rhodophyceae are called red algae Reason`:-` Red algae posses, predominance of `r-`phycocrythrin in their body.A. If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.B. If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertiion.C. If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.D. If both Assertion & Reason are False |
| Answer» Correct Answer - A | |
| 16. |
Lamotrigine can be used in the treatment of: a) Partial seizures b) Absence c) Myoclonic seizures d) All of the above |
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Answer» d) All of the above |
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| 17. |
Indicate an irreversible inhibitor of GABA aminotransferase (GABA-T): a) Diazepam b) Phenobarbital c) Vigabatrin d) Felbamate |
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Answer» c) Vigabatrin |
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| 18. |
Tiagabine: a) Blocks neuronal and glial reuptake of GABA from synapses b) Inhibits GABA-T, which catalyzed the breakdown of GABA c) Blocks the T-type Ca2+ channels d) Inhibits glutamate transmission at AMPA/kainate receptors |
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Answer» a) Blocks neuronal and glial reuptake of GABA from synapses. |
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| 19. |
A long-acting drug against both absence and myoclonic seizures is: a) Primidone b) Carbamazepine c) Clonazepam d) Phenytoin |
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Answer» c) Clonazepam |
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| 20. |
The mechanism of vigabatrin′s action is: a) Direct action on the GABA receptor-chloride channel complex b) Inhibition of GABA aminotransferase c) NMDA receptor blockade via the glycine binding site d) Inhibition of GABA neuronal reuptake from synapses |
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Answer» b) Inhibition of GABA aminotransferase |
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| 21. |
Which of the following antiseizure drugs binds to an allosteric regulatory site on the GABA-BZ receptor, increases the duration of the Clchannels openings: a) Diazepam b) Valproate c) Phenobarbital d) Topiramate |
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Answer» c) Phenobarbital |
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| 22. |
Benzodiazepine΄s uselfulness is limited by: a) Tolerance b) Atropine-like symptoms c) Psychotic episodes d) Myasthenic syndrome |
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Answer» Benzodiazepine΄s uselfulness is limited by Tolerance. |
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| 23. |
Which of the following antiseizure drugs acts directly on the GABA receptor-chloride channel complex? a) Vigabatrin b) Diazepam c) Gabapentin d) Valproate |
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Answer» (b) Diazepam |
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| 24. |
Which of the following antiseizure drugs is a prodrug, metabolized to phenobarbital? a) Phenytoin b) Primidone c) Felbamate d) Vigabatrin |
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Answer» Primidone antiseizure drugs is a prodrug, metabolized to phenobarbital. |
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| 25. |
The mechanism of action of antiseizure drugs is: a) Enhancement of GABAergic (inhibitory) transmission b) Diminution of excitatory (usually glutamatergic) transmission c) Modification of ionic conductance d) All of the above mechanisms |
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Answer» d) All of the above mechanisms |
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| 26. |
A mammalian DNA polymerase among the following is (A) DNA polymerase α (B) DNA polymerase I (C) DNA polymerase II (D) DNA polymerase IV |
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Answer» (A) DNA polymerase α |
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| 27. |
Carbon skeleton of the following amino acid can serve as a substance for gluconeogenes is(A) Cysteine (B) Aspartate (C) Glutamate (D) All of these |
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Answer» (D) All of these |
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| 28. |
Mammalian DNA polymerase γ is located in (A) Nucleus (B) Nucleolus (C) Mitochondria (D) Cytosol |
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Answer» (C) Mitochondria |
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| 29. |
tRNA genes have(A) Upstream promoters(B) Downstream promoters(C) Intragenic promoters (D) No promoters |
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Answer» (C) Intragenic promoters |
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| 30. |
Eukaryotic promoters contain (A) TATA box 25bp upstream of transcription start site (B) CAAT box 70-80 bp upstream of transcription start site (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these |
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Answer» (C) Both (A) and (B) |
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| 31. |
CAAT box is present in(A) Prokaryotic promoters 10 bp upstream of transcription start site (B) Prokaryotic promoters 35 bp upstream of transcription start site (C) Eukaryotic promoters 25 bp upstream of transcription start site (D) Eukaryotic promoters 70–80 bp upstream of transcription start site |
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Answer» (D) Eukaryotic promoters 70–80 bp upstream of transcription start site |
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| 32. |
Inducers and repressors are (A) Enhancer and silencer elements respectively (B) Trans-acting factors(C) Cis-acting elements (D) Regulatory proteins |
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Answer» (B) Trans-acting factors |
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| 33. |
Silencer elements (A) Are trans-acting factors (B) Are present between promoters and the structural genes (C) Decrease the expression of some structural genes (D) Encode specific repressor proteins |
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Answer» (C) Decrease the expression of some structural genes |
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| 34. |
Genetic information flows from (A) DNA to DNA (B) DNA to RNA (C) RNA to cellular proteins (D) DNA to cellular proteins |
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Answer» (B) DNA to RNA |
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| 35. |
Urine bases with methyl substituents occurring in plants are(A) Caffeine (B) Theophylline (C) Theobromine (D) All of these |
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Answer» (D) All of these |
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| 36. |
Genetic information in human beings is stored in (A) RNA (B) DNA (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) mRNA |
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Answer» Correct option (B) DNA |
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| 37. |
Genetic information in human beings is stored in (A) DNA (B) RNA (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these |
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Answer» Correct option (A) DNA |
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| 38. |
All the following statements about protooncogenes are true except (A) They are present in human beings (B) They are present in healthy cells (C) Proteins encoded by them are essential (D) They are expressed only when a healthy cell has been transformed into a cancer cell |
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Answer» (D) They are expressed only when a healthy cell has been transformed into a cancer cell |
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| 39. |
Lac operon is a cluster of genes present in (A) Human beings (B) E. coli (C) Lambda phage (D) All of these |
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Answer» Correct option (B) E. coli |
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| 40. |
Fibronectin has binding sites for all of the following except (A) Glycophorin (B) Collagen (C) Heparin (D) Integrin receptor |
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Answer» Correct option (C) Heparin |
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| 41. |
Which of the following is a palindromic sequence (A) 5' - ATGCAG - 3'(B) 3′− TACGTC − 5′ (C) 5' - CGAAGC - 3'(D) 3' - GCTTCG - 5' |
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Answer» (C) 5' - CGAAGC - 3' |
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| 42. |
Trials for gene therapy in human beings were first carried out, with considerable success, in a genetic disease called (A) Cystic fibrosis (B) Thalassemia (C) Adenosine deaminase deficiency (D) Lesch-Nyhan syndrome |
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Answer» (C) Adenosine deaminase deficiency |
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| 43. |
Marfan’s syndrome results from a mutation in the gene coding: (A) Collagen (B) Elastin (C) Fibrillin (D) Keratin |
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Answer» Correct option (B) Elastin |
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| 44. |
DNA contains some palindromic sequences which(A) Mark the site for the formation of replication forks(B) Direct DNA polymerase to turn back to replicate the other strand (C) Are recognized by restriction enzymes (D) Are found only in bacterial DNA |
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Answer» (C) Are recognized by restriction enzymes |
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| 45. |
In sticky ends produced by restriction endonucleases (A) The 2 strands of DNA are joined to each other (B) The DNA strands stick to the restriction endonuclease (C) The ends of a double stranded fragment are overlapping (D) The ends of a double stranded fragment are non overlapping |
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Answer» (C) The ends of a double stranded fragment are overlapping |
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| 46. |
Restriction endonucleases split (A) RNA (B) Single stranded DNA (C) Double stranded DNA (D) DNA-RNA hybrids |
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Answer» (C) Double stranded DNA |
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| 47. |
Restriction endonucleases recognize and cut a certain sequence of (A) Single stranded DNA (B) Double stranded DNA (C) RNA (D) Protein |
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Answer» (B) Double stranded DNA |
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| 48. |
Chimeric DNA (A) Is found in bacteriophages (B) Contains unrelated genes (C) Has no restriction sites (D) Is palindromic |
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Answer» (B) Contains unrelated genes |
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| 49. |
α-Amanitin inhibits(A) DNA polymerase II of prokaryotes (B) DNA polymerase α of eukaryotes (C) RNA polymerase II of eukaryotes (D) RNA-dependent DNA polymerase |
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Answer» (C) RNA polymerase II of eukaryotes |
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| 50. |
All of the following statements about restriction endonucleases are true except: (A) They are present in bacteria (B) They act on double stranded DNA (C) They recognize palindromic sequences (D) They always produce sticky ends |
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Answer» (D) They always produce sticky ends |
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