Explore topic-wise InterviewSolutions in Current Affairs.

This section includes 7 InterviewSolutions, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Current Affairs knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

Reactivity order of SN1 reaction for the following compound is(1)   a > b > c > d(2)   a > d > c > b(3)   c > d > b > a(4)  a > b > d > c

Answer»

Correct option  (4)  a > b > d > c

Explanation:

The SN1 reaction is proportional to stability of carbocation formed in the rate determining step.

2.

Increasing rate of SN1 reaction in the following compounds is :

Answer»

Correct option (4) (B) < (A) < (C) < (D)

Explanation:

Rate of SN1– reaction ∝ stability of C– I.m

3.

Assertion: Electron gain enthalpy of Cl is more negative than fluorine. Reason: Fluorine is more electronegative than chlorine. a). Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion. b). Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion. c). Assertion is true but reason is false.d). Both assertion and reason are false.

Answer»

b). Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

4.

Assertion: SN2 reaction leads to walden invertion. Reason: during transition state formation of nucleophile attack the side opposite to that were halide is attached. a). Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion. b). Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion. c). Assertion is true but reason is false. d). Both assertion and reason are false.

Answer»

a). Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

5.

Assertion: Propene reacts with HBr in presence of benzoyl peroxide to yield to bromo propane. Reason: In presence of peroxide the addition of HBr to propene follow ionic mechanism. a). Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion. b). Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion. c). Assertion is true but reason is false.d). Both assertion and reason are false.

Answer»

d). Both assertion and reason are false.

6.

A mixture of oxygen and ethyne is burnt for welding. Can you tell why a mixture of ethyne and air is not used?

Answer»

When ethyne is burnt in air, incomplete burning takes place and produce sooty flame due to limited supply of oxygen present in the air. However, if ethyne is burnt in oxygen, it gives a clean flame with high temperature (3000˚C) due to complete combustion of ethyne. Hence, this oxy-acetylene flame is used for welding and it is not possible to attain such a high temperature with air. Due to this reason, a mixture of ethyne and air is not used for welding.

7.

What is Saponification? Write a reaction to illustrate these phenomena.

Answer»

When ester is treated with an alkali, the reaction gives ethanol and sodium ethanoate. This reaction is called saponification reaction because this reaction forms the basis of preparation of soap. 

This can be given by following equation: 

CH3COOC2H5 + NaOH → CH3COONa+C2H50H

8.

Match the following catalyst with their products:(i) TiCl4 + AlCl3(A) Ethanal(ii) V2O5(B) NH3(iii) Fe(C) Polyethylene(iv) Pd(D) H2SO4Identify the correct option:

Answer»

Correct option: (2) (i) - B, (ii) - D, (iii) - B, (iv) - A

9.

What is the effect of release of CO2 gas on atmosphere?(1) Global warming(2) Photochemical smog(3) Ozone layer depletion(4) Tsunami

Answer»

Correct option: (1) Global warming

10.

Light year is a unit of ...............(a) Mass       (b) volume    (c) density     (d) Distance

Answer»

 (d) Distance

Explanation:

Light year is unit of distance  i.e. distance travelled in one year at the speed of light   

11.

A cell of internal resistance r drives current through an external resistance R. The power delivered by the cell to the external resistance will be maximum when -(1) R = 1000r (2) R = 0.001r (3) R = 2r (4) R = r

Answer»

Correct option (4) R = r 

Explanation:

For maximum power transfer

R = r

12.

S=(5times10^(-3)times100)/(10-5times10^(-3))

Answer» Simplify Right Side

`S = 0.05003`

13.

The boolean expression `~ (p rArr (~ q))` is equivalent toA. `p wedge q`B. `q rArr ~p`C. `p vee q`D. `(~p) rArr q`

Answer» Correct Answer - A
Given boolean expression is
` ~ (p rArr (~q))`
`-= ~ ((~p) vee (~q)) " "[ becauseP rArr q -= ~ p vee q]`
` -= p wedge q`
14.

Which one of the following statement is not a tautology?A. `(p wedge q) to (~ p ) vee q`B. `(p wedge q) to p`C. `p to (p vee q)`D. ` (p vee q) to (p vee (~q))`

Answer» Correct Answer - D
`(p wedge q) to (~p) vee q`
`-= (~(p wedge q)) vee ((~p) vee q)`
` -= ((~p) vee (~q)) vee ((~p) vee q)`
`-=(~p) vee (~q) vee q " "[ because (~p) vee (~p) -= ~p]`
` -= (~p) vee T " "[because ~q vee q -= T]`
`-= T`
So, it is a tautology `" " [ because (( ~q) vee q) " is tautology"]`
(b) `(p wedge q) to p -= (p wedge q) vee p`
`-= (( ~p) vee (~q)) vee p`
` " "[ because ~ (p wedge q) -= (~p) vee (~q)]`
`-= (~ p vee p ) vee (~q)` is tautology.
` [ because ~ p vee p " is a tautology and " (~q) vee T -= T]`
(c) `because p to (p vee q) -= (~p) vee (p vee q)`
`[ because p to q " is equivalent and " (~p vee q)]`
`-= (~p vee p ) vee q` is tautology.
`[ because (~p vee p) " is tautology and " q vee T -= T]`
(d) `(p vee q) to (p vee (~q))`
`-= (~(p vee q)) vee (p vee (~q))`
`-= ((~p) wedge (~q)) vee (p vee (~q))`
`-= (p vee (~q) vee ((~p ) wedge (~q))`
`-= (p vee (~q) vee (~p)) wedge (p vee (~q) vee (~q))`
`-= (T vee (~q)) wedge (p wedge (~q))`
`-= T wedge (p wedge (~q))`
`-= p wedge (~q),` which is not a tautology.
15.

if `x_(1),x_(2)….x_(10)` are 10 observations, in which mean of `x_(1),x_(2),x_(3),x_(4)` is 11 while mean of `x_(5),x_(6)….x_(10)` is 16. also `x_(1)^(2)+x_(2)^(2)+….x_(10)^(2)=2000` then value of standard devition isA. `2sqrt(2)`B. 2C. 4D. `sqrt(2)`

Answer» Correct Answer - B
key idea Formula of standard deviation (sigma), for n observations
`=sqrt((Sigmax_(1)^(2))/(n)-((Sigmax_(1))/(n))^(2))`
Given 10 observations are `x_(1),x_(2),x_(3), … , x_(10)`
` therefore (x_(1)+x_(2)+x_(3)+x_(4))/(4) =11`
`rArr x_(1)+x_(2)+x_(3)+x_(4)=44 " ...(i)" `
`and (x_(5)+x_(6)+x_(7)+x_(8)+x_(9)+x_(10))/(6)=16`
` implies x_(5)+x_(6)+x_(7)+x_(8)+x_(9)+x_(10)=96 " ...(ii)" `
So, mean of given 10 observations `=(44+96)/(10)=(140)/(10)=14`
Since, the sum of squares of all the observations = 2000
`x_(1)^(2)+x_(2)^(2)+x_(3)^(2)+ ... +x_(10)^(2)=2000 " ...(iii)' `
Now, `sigma^(2)=("standard deviation")^(2)=(Sigma x_(i)^(2))/(10)-((Sigma x_(i)^(2))/(10))^(2)`
`=(2000)/(10)-(14)^(2)=200-196=4`
So, `sigma =2`
16.

If the standard deviation of the numbers -1, 0, 1, k is `sqrt(5) " where " k gt 0` is equal toA. `2sqrt((10)/(3))`B. `2 sqrt(6)`C. `4sqrt((5)/(3))`D. `sqrt(6)`

Answer» Correct Answer - B
Given observations are -1, 0, 1 and k.
Also, standard deviation of these four observations`=sqrt(5)`
`therefore sqrt(((-1)^(2)+(0)^(2)+(1)^(2)+k^(2))/(4)-((-1+0+1+k)/(4))^(2))=sqrt(5)`
`[ because "if "x-(1),x_(2) ... x_(n) ` are n observation, then standard deviation `=sqrt((1)/(n)Sigma_(i=1)^(n) x_(i)^(2)-((1)/(n)Sigma_(i=1)^(n)x_(i))^(2))]`
`rArr (2+k^(2))/(4)-(k^(2))/(16)=5 " " `[squaring both sides]
`rArr (8+4k^(2)-k^(2))/(16)=5 rArr (8+3k^(2))/(16) =5`
`rArr 8+3k^(2)=80 rArr 3k^(2)=72`
`rArr k^(2)=24 rArr k=2sqrt(6) or -2sqrt(6)`
`rArr k=2sqrt(6) " "[ because k gt 0]`
17.

If the truth value of the statement `p to (~q vee r)` is false (F), then the truth values of the statements p,q and r are respectivelyA. T, T and FB. T, F and FC. T, F and TD. F, T and T

Answer» Correct Answer - A
Key idea Use formula:
`P to q = ~ p vee q`
Given statement is
`p to (~ q vee r)= ~ p vee (~ q vee r)`
Now, from the options
(a) When `p = T, q = T and r = F`
then `~ p vee ( ~ q vee r) = F vee (F vee F) = F`
(b) When `p = T, q = F and r = F`
then ` ~ p vee ( ~ q vee r)=F vee (T vee F) = T`
(c ) When `p = T, q = F and r = T`
then `~ p vee ( ~ q vee r) = F vee (T vee T) =T`
(d) When `p = F, q = T and r = T`
then `~ p vee ( ~ q vee r) = T vee (F vee T)=T`
18.

If ` p rArr (q vee r) ` is false, then the truth values of p, q, r are respectivelyA. T, T, FB. T, F, FC. F, F, FD. F, T, T

Answer» Correct Answer - B
Given statement `p rArr (q vee r)` is false.
` because p to (q vee r)=(~ p) vee (q vee r)`
Now, by trial and error method, if truth value of p is T, q is F and r is F,
then truth value of `(q vee r) ` is F.
So, truth value of `[(~p) vee (q vee r)]` is false.
Thus, if truth value of p, q, r are T, F, F, then the statement `p to (q vee r)` is false.
19.

If both the standard deviation and mean of data `x_(1),x_(2),x_(3),……x_(50)` are 16, then the mean of the data set (`x_(1)-4)^(2),(x_(2)-4)^(2),(x_(3)-4)^(2),….(x_(50)-4)^(2)` isA. 480B. 400C. 380D. 525

Answer» Correct Answer - B
It is given that both mean and standard deviation of 50 observations `x_(1), x_(2), x_(3), … , x_(50)` are equal to 16,
So, mean `=(Sigma x_(i))/(50)=16 " …(i)" `
and standard deviation `=sqrt((Sigmax_(i)^(2))/(50)-((Sigmax_(i))/(50))^(2))=16`
`rArr (Sigmax_(i)^(2))/(50)-(16)^(2)=(16)^(2)`
`rArr (Sigmax_(i)^(2))/(50)=2 xx 256 = 512 " ...(ii)" `
Now, mean of `(x_(1)-4)^(2),(x_(2)-4)^(2), ..., (x_(50)-4)^(2)`
`=(Sigma(x_(i)-4)^(2))/(50)=(Sigma(x_(i)^(2)-8x_(i)+16))/(50)`
`=(Sigmax_(i)^(2))/(50)-8((Sigmax_(i))/(50))+(16)/(50)Sigma1`
`=512-(8xx16)+((16)/(50)xx50) " " `[from Eqs. (i) and (ii)]
`=512 -128 +16 =400`
20.

Which one of the following Boolean expressions is a tautology?A. `(p vee q) vee (p vee ~ q)`B. `(p wedge q) vee (p wedge ~ q)`C. `(p vee q) wedge (p vee ~ q)`D. `(p vee q) wedge (p vee ~ q)`

Answer» Correct Answer - A
Option (a) `(p vee q) vee (p vee (~q))`
`-= p vee (qv ~ q)` is tautolgy,
` [ because q vee (~q) -= T and p vee T -= T]`
Option (b)
`(p vee q) vee (p wedge (~q))-= p wedge (q vee ~ q)`
not a tautology,
`[ because q vee ~ q-= T and p wedge T -= p]`
Option (c)
`(p vee q) wedge (p vee (~q)) -= p vee (q wedge ~q)`
not a tautology `[ because q wedge ~q-= F and p vee F-= p]`
Option (d)
`(p vee q) wedge ((~p) vee (~q))-= (p vee q) wedge ( ~ (p wedge q))`
not a tautology.
21.

Which of the following is covalent in nature (x = cl, Br, I)(1) BeX2(2) CaX2(3) MgX2(4) Srx2

Answer»

The correct option (1) BeX 

Explanation:

According to fajan's rule when size of cation decrease, then covalent character increase. so BeX2 is covalent in nature.

22.

In a bag there are 20 cards 10 names A and another 10 names B. Cards are drawn randomly one by one with replacement then find probability that second A comes before third B.(1) 13/16(2) 11/16(3) 7/16(4) 9/16

Answer»

Answer is (2) 11/16

AA + ABA + BAA + ABBA + BBAA + BABA

= 1/4 + 1/8 + 1/8 + 1/8 + 1/16 + 1/16 + 1/16 = 11/16

23.

What change will you observe it you test soap with Litmus paper (red and blue)?

Answer»

Soap is basic in nature and hence turns red litmus blue.

24.

Consider the following statements related to the advantages of concrete sleepers :1. Concrete sleepers can generally be mass-produced using local resources.2. Concrete sleepers are not suitable for beater packing.3. Concrete sleepers have a very long life span.4. Concrete sleepers have no scrap value.Which of the above statements is/are correct?1. 1 only2. 1 and 3 only3. 2 only4. 2 and 4 only

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Concrete Sleeper:

(i) Concrete sleeper is a kind of railway sleeper made of steel-reinforced concrete. With the characteristic of water-resistant, sun-resistant, and corrosion-resistant.

(ii) Concrete sleeper has been widely used all over the world since 1950.

Advantages of Concrete Sleepers:

  • It is more durable having greater life (up to 50 years)
  • It is economical as compared to wood and steel.
  • Concrete sleepers can generally be mass-produced using local resources.
  • Easy to manufacture.
  • It is not susceptible to vermin attack
  • It is not susceptible to fire
  • Good for track circuited areas

Disadvantages of Concrete Sleepers

  • It is brittle and cracks without warning.
  • It cannot be repaired and required replacement.
  • Fittings required are greater in number.
  • No scrap value

Advantages of Wooden Sleepers:

  • They are cheap and easy to manufacture
  • They are easy to handle without damage
  • They are more suitable for all types of ballast
  • They absorb shocks and vibrations better than other types of sleepers.
  • Ideal for track circuited sections
  • Fittings are few and simple in design
  • Good resilience
  • Ease of handling
  • Adaptability to non-standard situation
  • Electrical insulation

Disadvantages of Wooden Sleepers:

  • They are easily liable to attack by vermin and weather
  • They are susceptible to fire
  • It is difficult to maintain gauge in the case of wooden sleepers
  • The scrap value is negligible
  • Their useful life is short about 12 to 15 years.

Advantages of Steel Sleepers:

  • It is more durable. Its life is about 35 years
  • Lesser damage during handling and transport
  • It is not susceptible to vermin attack
  • It is not susceptible to fire
  • Its scrap value is very good

Disadvantages of Steel Sleepers:

  • It is liable to corrosion.
  • Not suitable for track circuiting
  • It can be used only for rails for which it is manufactured
  • Cracks at rail seats develop during the service.
  • Fittings required are greater in number

Advantages of Cast Iron Sleepers:

  • Service life is very long
  • Less liable to corrosion
  • Form good track for light traffic up to 110 kmph as they form rigid track subjected to vibrations under moving loads without any damping
  • Scrap value is high

Disadvantages of Cast Iron Sleepers:

  • Gauge maintenance is difficult as tie bars get bent up
  • Not suitable for circuited track
  • Need a large number of fittings
  • Suitable only for stone ballast
  • Heavy traffic and high speeds (>110kmph) will cause loosening of keys and development of high creep
25.

Consider the following statements related to the advantages of uniformity of rail gauges :1. As transhipping is not required, there is breakage of goods.2. Large sheds to store goods are not required.3. Labour strikes, etc. do not affect the service and operation of trains.Which of the above statements are correct ?1. 1 and 2 only2. 2 and 3 only3. 1 and 3 only4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Railway Gauge:

(i) The clear horizontal distance between the inner faces of the two rails forming a track is known as a Railway Gauge.

(ii) The distance between the inner faces of a pair of wheels is called the wheel gauge.

Types of Gauges in India

In India the following gauges are used:

  • Standard Gauge or Broad Gauge: Gauge width 1.676 m.
  • Metre/Meter Gauge (M.G): Gauge width 1.000 m.
  • Narrow Gauge (N.G): Gauge width 0.672 m.
  • Feeder Track Gauge or Light Gauge: Gauge width 0.610 m.

Advantages of Uniform Gauge:

The use of a uniform gauge has the following advantages:

  • The delay cost and hardship in shifting passengers and goods from the vehicle of one gauge to the other are avoided.  
  • Labour expenses of shifting are saved.  
  • Breakage of goods due to shifting is avoided.  
  • The possibility of thefts and misplacement during the shifting operation is eliminated.  
  • Large sheds to store goods are not required.  
  • Labour strikes etc. do not affect the service and operation of trains.   
  • Wagons can be efficiently used on all the tracks if the gauge is uniform.  
  • Locomotives can be effectively used on all the tracks if a uniform gauge is adopted.  
  • During military movement, no time is wasted in shifting personnel and equipment if the gauge is uniform.  
  • Duplication of equipment such as platforms, sanitary arrangements, etc is avoided.  

Factors Affecting Adopting of a Particular Gauge

The following factors govern the choice of different gauges:

  • Cost of construction and funds available for the railway project.
  • Volume and nature of traffic. 
  • The intensity of the population.
  • Industrial and commercial development of the locality.
  • Prospects of future development of the area.
  • Topographical and geological features of the country.
  • Speed of movement required.
26.

The load per unit length required to produce one unit depression in the rail bottom is called ______ modulus.1. Shear2. Elastic3. Ballast4. Track

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : Track

Explanation:

Track modulus:

(i) Track modulus is the index for stiffness or resistance to deformation of the permanent way. It is defined as the load per unit length of the rail required to produce unit deformation or depression in the track.

(ii) It depends on gauge distance, type of rails, type and density of sleepers and type of Ballast etc.

(iii) For computation of track modulus initial load taken for BG is 4 tonnes and for MG track is 3 tonnes. 

27.

While designing roads, bridges and culverts which of the following load is not considered?1. Dead Load2. Live Load3. Machine Load 4. Snow Load

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Machine Load 

Explanation:

Load Determination in the designing of bridge or culvert:

(i) 

Determining the potential loads or forces that are anticipated to act on a bridge is related to the bridge location and purpose. Engineers consider three main types of loads: dead loads, live loads and environmental loads.

(ii) Dead loads include the weight of the bridge itself plus any other permanent object affixed to the bridge, such as toll booths, highway signs, guardrails, gates or a concrete road surface.

(iii) Live loads are temporary loads that act on a bridge, such as cars, trucks, trains or pedestrians.

(iv) Environmental loads are temporary loads that act on a bridge and that are due to weather or other environmental influences, such as wind from hurricanes, tornadoes or high gusts, snow, and earthquakes. Rainwater collecting might also be a factor if proper drainage is not provided.

Machine load is not consider in the designing of Bridges. 
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28.

The efficiency of IC engine is normally of the order of1. 15 - 20%2. 20 - 25%3. 25 - 30%4. 30 - 35%

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : 30 - 35%

Explanation:

Steam engine: The heat engine that converts heat energy of steam into mechanical energy to perform many works is called a steam engine.

Internal combustion engine: An engine that converts chemical energy into mechanical energy by combustion of a fuel and generates mechanical power.

Internal combustion engine:

  • The combustion of fuel takes place inside the engine cylinder.
  • It has a noisy operation.
  • The working pressure and temperature inside the engine are very high.
  • It does not require a boiler and other components for energy transfer, therefore it is light and compact.
  • It has a thermal efficiency of 30 to 35 %.
  • It can start instantaneously.
29.

Measurement technique in which the quantity is measured by direct comparison on an indicating device by replacing the measurable quantity with another which produces the same effect on the indicating device is known as:1. Comparison Method2. Absolute Method3. Direct Method4. Substitution Method

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : Substitution Method

Explanation:

Substitution Method:

It is a measurement technique in which the quantity is measured by direct comparison on an indicating device by replacing the measurable quantity with another which produces the same effect on the indicating device.
The substitution method is the algebraic method to solve simultaneous linear equations. As the word says, in this method, the value of one variable from one equation is substituted in the other equation. In this way, a pair of the linear equation gets transformed into one linear equation with only one variable, which can then easily be solved. 

Substitution Method Steps:
For instance, the system of two equations with two unknown values, the solution can be obtained by using the below steps. Here, the list of steps is provided to solve the linear equation. They are

  • Simplify the given equation by expanding the parenthesis
  • Solve one of the equations for either x or y
  • Substitute the step 2 solution in the other equation
  • Now solve the new equation obtained using elementary arithmetic operations
  • Finally, solve the equation to find the value of the second variable
30.

A particle of mass m is suspended from a string so that it can move in a circular path in vertical plane. It is given `v=3sqrt(gl)`at the bottom most point. Match the values of tension in string at A,B,C,D `{:("Column I",, "Column II"),("(A) "T_(A),,"(P) 10 mg ),("(B) " T_(B),,"(Q) 7 mg"),("(C) " T_(C),,"(R) 4 mg "),("(D) " T_(D),,"(S) 5 mg "),(,,"(T) 5.5 mg"):}`

Answer» Correct Answer - P
Q
R
T
31.

A flexible smooth track is fixed in two alternate arrangments, as shown in figure -1 and 2. the length of the track used is the same in each case, and the height through which it falls from the bench to the floor is the same. A toy car is released at rest and slides down the track. air resistance can be ignored. A. The speed at the bottom as well as time taken in both the traks are the same.B. The speed at the bottom as well as time taken in both the tracks are differentC. The speed at the bottom is different but the time taken in both the tracks are the same.D. The speed at the bottom is same but the time taken in both the tracks are different.

Answer» Correct Answer - D
32.

A ship is travelling due north at 40 kmph. The captain of the finds that a second ship is always sailing `60^(@)` west of north at a speed of 40 kmph. The velocity of the second ship then must beA. 40 kmph, `30^(@)` west of northB. 40 kmph. `60^(@)` west of southC. `40sqrt(3)` kmph, `30^(@)` west of northD. `40sqrt(3)` kmph, `60^(@)` west of south

Answer» Correct Answer - C
33.

In each of the following situations, comment on the force F direction.

Answer» Correct Answer - R
R
R
34.

One end of a light rod of length 1m is attached with a string of length 1m. Other end of the rod is attached at point O such that rod can move in a vertical circle. Other end of the string is attached with a block of mass 2kg. The minimum velocity that must be given to the block in horizontal direction so that it can complete the vertical is `(g=10 m//s^(2))` A. `4sqrt(5)`B. `5sqrt(5)`C. 10D. `3sqrt(5)`

Answer» Correct Answer - 1
35.

The refractive index of a glass is 1.520 for red light and 1.525 for blue light. Let D1 and D2 be angles of minimum deviation for red and blue light respectively in a prism of this glass. Then,(a) D1 &lt; D2(b) D1 = D2(c) D1 can be less than or greater than D2 depending upon the angle of prism(d) D1 &gt; D2

Answer»

(a) For a thin prism, D = (μ – 1) A Since λb < λr ⇒ μr < μb ⇒ D1 < D2

36.

The electrons move( -ve) to (+ve) then why the current flows from (+) to (-)❓

Answer»

In an electric circuit, the direction of flow of electron is taken to be from negative to positive but the direction of current (say conventional current) is taken from positive to negative. 

When electricity was discovered, scientists at that time were not aware of electrons. They thought that positive ions were responsible for conduction of current. Therefore, they decided that the direction of current would be from positive to negative. We still respect this convention even today. so we named it conventional current direction.

The great scientist J. J. Thomson when discovered electrons. Then everyone soon understood that electrons were responsible for current in most conductors. to change the previous convention was not a good idea. Hence, we continued to use the same convention.

37.

A circular wire of radius r rotates r about its own axis with angular speed  w in a magnetic  field  B perpendicular to its plane , then the induced emf is zero  why and how????

Answer»

|E| = |ΦB|/ t

Where E is induced emf and ΦB = BA cos α
Here B is magnetic field and A is area and α is the angle between circular wire plane and magnetic field.

Here α = 90°
So induced emf = 0 as cos
α = 0

38.

The India-Sri Lanka Commercial Free Trade Agreement was signed in ______.1. 1998 2. 20053. 20154. 2000

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : 1998 

The correct answer is 1998.

  • The India-Sri Lanka Commercial-Free Trade Agreement was signed in 1998.

  • The commercial relations between Sri Lanka and India has marked a historical milestone when it was signed the India-Sri Lanka Free Trade Agreement (ISFTA) on 28th December 1998, as the 01st bilateral free trade agreement of Sri Lanka.
  • The ISFTA entered into force with effect from 01st March 2000.
  • The ISFTA is now in full implementation as both sides have completed their phasing out commitments under the respective Tariff Liberalization Programme (TLP).

  • In 2011-12, India’s imports from Sri Lanka went up by almost 45% to cross US$ 720 million, making Sri Lanka the largest source of merchandise from the South Asian region for India.
    • This is a big jump from US$ 45 million imports in 2000-01 when Sri Lanka occupied 4th rank as an import source for India in the region. 
39.

By which bill does the government make arrangement for the collection of revenues for a year? (a) Supplementary Budget (b) Finance Bill (c) Fiscal Budget (d) Economic Bill

Answer»

(b) Finance Bill 

40.

Grants or advances made by the House to enable the government to carry on until the voting of the demands for grants and passing of the General Appropriation Bill is called: (a) vote on account (b) complementary budget (c) supplementary budget (d) contingency budget 

Answer»

(a) vote on account

41.

Once the demands for grants and expenditure of different departments are passed by the Parliament, a bill to draw money from Consolidated Fund India for these purposes is introduced. This bill is called: (a) finance bill (b) money bill (c) appropriation bill (d) credit budget bill 

Answer»

(c) appropriation bill

42.

On the basis og given diagram, answer the following questions: (i) On the production possiblility curve AE, if the economy decides to produce 50 million tonnes of wheat then how many tanks it can produce ? (ii) If there is growth in resources, what will appen to the production possibility curve (iii) Which point in the diagram represents underutillisation of resources? (iv) Which of the points n diagram is an unattainable combination? (v) Identify the point at whihc the economy will operate if resources are fully and efficiently utilised.

Answer» (i) zero Tanks.
(ii) The production possibility curve will shift towards right.
(iii) Point F.
(iv) Point G.
(v) If resources are fully and efficiently utilized, economy can operate at any point (like points A, B,C, or E) on the production possibility curve.
43.

Production Possibility Frontier is:A. Downward SlopingB. Concave ShapedC. Both (a) and (b)D. Either (a) or (b)

Answer» Correct Answer - C
The two basic characteristics or features of PPF are:1. PPF slopes downwards:PPF shows all the maximum possible combination of two goods, which can be produced with the available resources and technology. In such a case, more of one good can be produced only by taking resources away from the production of another good.2. PPF is Concave Shaped:PPF is concave shaped because of increasing marginal opportunity costs, i.e. more and more units of one commodity are sacrificed to gain an additional unit of another commodity.
44.

Give two reasons for the problem of choice. Or Why does the problem of choice arise ?

Answer» the problem of choice arise1.resources are limited2.resources have alternative uses
45.

The density of an ideal gas 1.25×10^-3 g cm^-3 at stp calculate the molecular weight of the gas

Answer» We know that 22400 cm^3 of any ideal gas at ato is 1mole of the gas.

So molar mass of the gas will be

= 22400× density of the gas in gcm^-3

=22400×1.25×10^-3 gmol^-1

=28 gmol^-1

Hence molecular weight is 28
46.

When allocation of resources is considered as inefficient? 

Answer»

Allocation of resources is considered as inefficient when economy performs below the PPC curve.

47.

In the electrolysis of alumina, cryolite is added to–(a) Lower the m.p. of alumina(b) Decreases the electrical conductivity(c) Minimize the anode effect(d) Remove impurities from alumina

Answer»

In the electrolysis of alumina, cryolite is added to Lower the m.p. of alumina

48.

Explain the concept of Marginal opportunity cost by giving a a numerical example.

Answer» Marginal Opportunity Cost of any commodity is defined as the amount of sacrifice of another commodity so as to gain an additional unit of the given commodity.This can also be termed as Marginal Rate of Transformation which is the ratio of number of units of a good sacrificed to produce an additional unit of the other good.Example:Suppose for a manufacturing company, production of 1 consumer good requires the company to sacrifice production of 4 capital goods, then this 4 capital goods will be the marginal opportunity cost of producing an additional consumer good.
49.

Identify the following as Positive Statements and Normative Statements: (i) People should save more for their future. (ii) In India, population is increasing at an alarming rate. (iii) The Government should ompose heavy taxes on rich people. (iv) Smoking should be discouraged in the world. (v) In India, tax rate slabs increase with increase in income. (vi) Higher interest rates induces people to save more out of their income. (vii) High taxes on cigarettes discourage smoking. (viii) Government should put more efforts to reduce pollution.

Answer» Positive Statement: (ii),(v),(vi),(vii), Normative Statements, (i),(iii),(iv),(viii).
50.

Identify positive or normative statements from the following : Prices have been rising in India

Answer» Correct Answer - Positive statements