Explore topic-wise InterviewSolutions in Current Affairs.

Correct option is C) just

Correct option is C) gone

a. ii. People reproduce more to compensate for the deaths due to epidemics

b. i. Due to improvement in Sanitation and Health conditions

c. iii. The population becomes urbanized and has high technical knowhow.

d. ii. Stage II

Correct option is B) been

(a) Rainfall in India is concentrated only for few months and therefore, irrigation is required in the other months. Rainfall is uneven and deccan plateau remains dry due to deficient rainfall and agriculture cannot be practiced in the absence of irrigation. 

(b) Water requirement of certain crops such as Jute, Sugarcane and Rice is high which can be met only by irrigation 

(c) Use of HYV seeds, fertilizers and multiple cropping in the fields have made irrigation essential.

Correct option is C) for

Correct option is A) to

Correct option is B) by

The correct answer is Sri Aurobindo.

• Sri Aurobindo's original name was Aurobindo Ghose born on August 15, 1872 at Calcutta.
• This book was written by him in 1939.
• The Life Divine is Sri Aurobindo's principal philosophical work in which he presents a theory of spiritual evolution.
• The book is based on the 'advent of a divine life on the earth'.
• Other important books include:
  • Powers Within.
  • The Synthesis of Yoga.
  • Rebirth and Karma.
  • Essays on the Gita.

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• Books of Amrita Pritam - Pinjar, Raseedi Ticket,  The Shadows of Words, In the Times of Love and Longing, etc.
• Books by Swami Vivekanand - Jnana Yoga: The Yoga of Knowledge, Bhakti Yoga: The Yoga of Love and Devotion, My Master, etc.
• Books of Dayanand Saraswati - Kenopanisad, Mundakopanisad, The Value of Values, etc.

The correct answer is Mahadevi Verma.

• "Nirja" the book is written by Mahadevi Verma.

Some famous books by Mahadevi Verma:

• Path Ke Sathi,
• Atit Ke Chalchitra,
• Agnirekha,
• Gillu,
• Atmika,
• Sandhini.

(a) Greenhouse gases: The greenhouse effect refers to an overall increase in the average temperature of the Earth due to the presence of greenhouse gases. Greenhouse gases mainly consist of carbon dioxide, methane, and water vapour. When solar radiations reach the Earth, some of these radiations are absorbed. These absorbed radiations are released back into the atmosphere. These radiations are trapped by the greenhouse gases present in the atmosphere.. This helps in keeping our planet warm and thus, helps in human survival. However, an increase in the amount of greenhouse gases can lead to an excessive increase in the Earth’s temperature, thereby causing global warming.
(b) Catalytic converter: Catalytic converters are devices fitted in automobiles to reduce vehicular pollution. These devices contain expensive metals such as platinum, palladium, and rhodium that act as catalysts. As the vehicular discharge passes through the catalytic converter, the unburnt hydrocarbons present in it get converted into carbon dioxide and water. Carbon monoxide and nitric oxide released by catalytic converters are converted into carbon dioxide and nitrogen gas (respectively).

(c) Ultraviolet-B: Ultraviolet-B is an electromagnetic radiation which has a shorter wavelength than visible light. It is a harmful radiation that comes from sunlight and penetrates through the ozone hole onto the Earth’s surface. It induces many health hazards in humans. UV −B damages DNA and activates the process of skin ageing. It also causes skin darkening and skin cancer. High levels of UV −B cause corneal cataract in human beings.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

• Montreal Protocol is an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer from different ozone-depleting substances.
  • The treaty was signed on 26th August 1987 in Montreal.
  • The Montreal Protocol came into force on 26th August 1989 and since then has undergone nine revisions.
  • Due to this agreement, the ozone hole in Antarctica is recovering slowly.
  • The Montreal Protocol is signed between 197 countries.
• Basel Convention is an international treaty designed to reduce the movement of hazardous waste between nations and to prevent the transfer of hazardous waste from developed to less developed countries (LDC).
  • The Basel Convention was signed on 22nd March 1989 in Basel, Switzerland.
  • The convention came into effect on 5th May 1992.
• Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty which is an extension of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) 1992.
  • The Kyoto Protocol was signed on 11th December 1997 in Kyoto, Japan.
  • The protocol came into effect on 16th February 2005.
  • It got expired on 31st December 2012 and further on 8th December 2012 a new protocol was drafted in Doha, Qatar which came into effect on 31st December 2020.
• Vienna Convention is an international treaty that defines a framework for diplomatic relations between independent countries.
  • The Convention was signed on 18th April 1961 in Vienna.
  • It came into effect on 24th April 1964.
  • As of October 2018, there were 192 state parties to the convention including all United Nations member states except Palau, the Solomon Islands, and South Sudan.

CO₂ and Methane. CO₂ levels are increasing due to burning of fossil fuels,leading to Global Warming.

The plants growing near the boundary wall act as barriers for sound pollution and act as dust catchers.

The plants growing near the boundary wall act as barriers for sound pollution and act as dust catchers.

Answer is : (d) Low production

Answer is : (b) Madhya Pradesh

Correct option is: (b) Madhya Pradesh

Correct option is: (a) Venezuela

Answer is : (a) Venezuela

Correct option is: (c) Brazil

A. True The fibres carrying this sensation travel in the posterior columns. 

B. False The fibres carrying pain sensation travel in the spinothalamic tracts. 

C. False The reflex does not depend on posterior column fibres. 

D. True The fibres responsible for fine touch sensation travel in the posterior columns. 

E. True Proprioceptive information is important in maintaining balance and it is carried in the posterior columns.

A. False Glaucoma causes depression (‘cupping’) of the optic disc. 

B. False This is a cause of glaucoma. 

C. True Papilloedema is an important sign of raised intracranial pressure. 

D. True Optic neuritis causes swelling of the optic disc. 

E. True This causes local oedema involving the disc.

A. False Pain is due to excitation of specific pain receptors. 

B. True Such substances include histamine, bradykinin, 5-hydroxytryptamine, prostaglandins, nitric oxide and substance P. 

C. True Chemicals released in the injured tissue reduce the stimulation threshold to cause hyperalgesia. 

D. False Pain receptors adapt much more slowly than touch receptors. 

E. False This would inhibit synaptic transmission and may explain how enkephalin and endorphin modulate transmission of pain impulses in the substantia gelatinosa.

A. False Consciousness is a function of the cerebral cortical neurones. 

B. True The coordinating centres for pupillary reflexes are in the brainstem. 

C. False The reflex centres for tendon jerks are in the spinal cord. 

D. True Respiratory reflexes are coordinated in the brainstem. 

E. False Nystagmus is the normal reflex response of brainstem centres to this stimulus.

A. False The intestine may be cut painlessly during operations under local anaesthesia. 

B. True Stretch is an adequate stimulus for these receptors. 

C. True Chemicals released in inflammation lower the pain threshold (hyperalgesia). 

D. True As with a peptic ulcer. 

E. True This is the cause of the intermittent pain known as colic.

A. False Pain is uncommon with spinal cord lesions; the symptoms suggest irritation of a sensory root or peripheral nerve. 

B. True The fibres carrying these sensations run in separate tracts in the spinal cord. 

C. False It suggests a parietal cortex lesion where such sensory discriminations are made. 

D. False It suggests right-sided brain-stem damage since pain is appreciated at subcortical level. 

E. True Only peripheral nerves and posterior roots carry all modalities of sensation together from a circumscribed skin area.

A. False Sweat glands are innervated by sympathetic cholinergic nerves. 

B. False Resting heart rate rises due to blockade of vagal tone. 

C. False Parasympathetic nerves are not involved in skeletal muscle activity. 

D. True Dryness of the mouth results from blockade of salivary secretion. 

E. True Parasympathetic nerves are motor to intestinal smooth muscle.

A. True Parasympathetic nerves stimulate, and sympathetic nerves inhibit, intestinal smooth muscle contractions. 

B. False Both contract iris smooth muscle; however parasympathetics constrict the pupil by contracting circular muscle, sympathetics dilate it by contracting radial muscle. 

C. False Skeletal muscle has no parasympathetic nerve supply; local metabolites are responsible for the vasodilatation. 

D. False Skin has no parasympathetic innervation; sympathetic cholinergic nerves are responsible for the increase in sweating when body temperature rises. 

E. False The reverse is the case.

A. False Alpha and beta adrenoceptor stimulation in gut inhibits smooth muscle. 

B. True By blocking the bronchodilatory action of adrenaline and noradrenaline. 

C. True By several mechanisms including blocking the sympathetic drive to the heart. 

D. True By blocking the chronotropic effect of circulating catecholamines. 

E. False Increased flow in exercise depends on local metabolites, not beta adrenoceptors.

A. False Sweating is mediated by cholinergic nerves. 

B. False Bronchial smooth muscle has few alpha receptors; beta blockade tends to cause bronchoconstriction. 

C. False Stimulation of alpha or beta adrenoceptors inhibits the gut. 

D. True Alpha receptors mediate vasoconstriction. 

E. False The heart has few alpha receptors; beta receptor blockade slows the heart.

A. False Ventricles have little vagal innervation. 

B. False The vagus does not supply parasympathetic nerves to the salivary glands. 

C. True It also contracts bronchial smooth muscle. 

D. False It is sympathetic activity that causes the spleen to contract. 

E. True This together with relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi drives bile into the duodenum.

A. True Hence it influences skeletal muscle activity. 

B. True Damage to it leads to movements being clumsy (ataxia). 

C. True This provides information of the desired movement. 

D. True This provides information of the actual movement. 

E. True It has an important role in maintaining balance.

A. True Associated with increased electrical activity in cortical regions. 

B. True Diffuse cortical activity following sensory stimulation occurs later than local postcentral gyrus activity. 

C. True Sensory fibres ascending to the thalamus send collaterals to reticular nuclei. 

D. True The diffuse cortical activity following sensory stimulation is abolished by damage to the reticular formation. 

E. False Decreased activity leads to a higher arousal threshold during sleep.

A. False Skin temperature rises due to vasodilation. 

B. False The level rises due to hypoventilation. 

C. False Growth hormone level is higher, cortisol lower in sleep. 

D. True Due to slowing of metabolism and a fall in catecholamine level. 

E. True The antidiuretic hormone level is higher in sleep.

A. Option 2 Hypothermia. ‘Accidental’ hypothermia tends to affect people of all ages when immersed in cold water or exposed on land to low temperatures without adequate insulation; it also occurs in elderly people during cold weather, usually when they have suffered an illness such as a stroke which means they lie poorly insulated in a relatively low temperature. Diagnosis requires a low reading thermometer, usually inserted rectally, since a clinical thermometer is shaken down to an initial temperature around 35–36°C and this may be taken as the temperature even though the True temperature is 5–10 degrees below this. The markedly cold skin is an important clue. Treatment of such patients is often unsuccessful since they have the damage produced by hypothermia added to the underlying condition such as a stroke in this case.

B. Option 11 Brainstem death. This diagnosis is only made after careful repeated expert examination and after reversible causes such as Options 2, 8 and 9 have been excluded. Survival of the brainstem would be indicated by preservation of the brainstem corneal and pupillary reflexes, by the presence of nystagmus (jerky eye movements) provoked by stimulation of the vestibular system by the icy saline and by spontaneous breathing movements in the presence of a high carbon dioxide level. (The pre-oxygen fills the functional residual capacity with oxygen to prevent hypoxic damage during removal from the ventilator.)

C. Option 6 Diabetic ketoacidosis. This is a typical history of childhood-onset of insulindependent diabetes mellitus. Lack of insulin’s action leads to failure to assimilate absorbed glucose and other nutrients into the body cells, with resulting malnutrition and glycosuria leading to polyuria. In the absence of adequate intracellular glucose, energy production relies excessively on fat as a substrate and this leads to ketones and a huge excess of hydrogen ions (severe metabolic acidosis with pH 7.1 and bicarbonate down to about a third of normal due to buffering). This in turn leads to vomiting, coma and hyperventilation to compensate to some degree for the acidosis by lowering the carbon dioxide level. The blood glucose level would be 5–10 times normal.

D. Option 7 Hypoglycaemia. This patient contrasts with the previous one in that he is known to be a diabetic and his condition suggests a low blood sugar. This is suggested by the hyperdynamic circulation, a compensation for hypoglycaemia (in contrast, ketoacidosis is associated with a weak pulse and circulatory failure). The sweating is also a sympathetic autonomic response to hypoglycaemia. The initial treatment is an intravenous injection of concentrated glucose. Such patients not uncommonly have repeated episodes of unconsciousness due to hypoglycaemia and become known to ambulance personnel.

E. Option 4 Hepatic failure. The major clue here is the jaundice (yellow discolouration) which suggests a hepatic cause of coma. Hepatic failure often causes in the early stages a state similar to alcoholic intoxication and indeed the two could co-exist as excessive alcoholic consumption is a common cause of hepatic failure. However, in this case vomiting of blood has occurred (common in hepatic failure complicated by portal hypertension and oesophageal varices). It is likely that some of the blood lost will have been digested and the products of digestion absorbed from the gut. Digestion and absorption of this high protein load could cause hepatic coma to develop precipitated by toxic products of protein digestion which cannot be eliminated by the liver. 

A. True Hydrocephaly occurs because the cranial bone sutures have not closed.

B. True The cranial deformity in hydrocephalus may damage cranial nerves. 

C. False It causes papilloedema – bulging in the opposite direction. 

D. False Vessel compression may reduce cerebral flow severely. 

E. True This reflex response helps to maintain cerebral blood flow.

A. False It is not exaggerated but contraction of arm muscles reinforces the reflex. 

B. False Immediately after cord transection, reflexes below the level of the lesion are lost in the stage of ‘spinal shock’. 

C. True Muscle tone increases following contralateral internal capsular lesions. 

D. False Though muscle tone is increased, tendon jerks are not exaggerated. 

E. False Muscle tone is low following cerebellar damage and the knee jerk ‘pendular’.

A. True Thermoregulatory control is coordinated through the sympathetic nervous system by centres in the hypothalamus. 

B. True Due to exaggeration of the spinal withdrawal reflex. 

C. False Both micturition and defaecation can occur reflexly (their reflex centres are in the sacral cord) but are no longer under voluntary control. 

D. True This impairs the control of arterial blood pressure, especially in the erect position. 

E. False These are spinal reflexes with centres in the lumbosacral region of the spinal cord. 

A. False The left would be more affected; pain fibres cross the midline shortly after entering the cord. 

B. True The main motor tract to the right leg would be severed. 

C. True The fibres serving proprioception cross at the top of the spinal cord. 

D. False Diaphragmatic and some intercostal activity would remain intact.

E. False The reflex centres for micturition are in the sacral cord.

A. Option 5 Left half of spinal cord. This man has impaired pain and temperature sensation in his right leg. These sensory modalities are conveyed in pathways which cross the mid line soon after entry to the spinal cord, so the lesion is in the left side, affecting the spino-thalamic tract. 

B. Option 3 Left cerebral hemisphere. The age and symptoms are typical of a ‘stroke’. We are not told the side of the weakness, but since the left cerebral hemisphere is concerned with speech in the great majority of people, the lesion is most likely to be in the left than the right hemisphere. 

C. Option 1 Lower motor neurones. Weakness without sensory loss suggests a motor abnormality. Wasting and impaired reflexes are typical of a lower motor neurone lesion. 

D. Option 3 Left cerebral hemisphere. Persisting weakness of an upper motor neurone type (brisk reflex), together with loss of sensation suggest the effects of a stroke affecting the brain on the opposite side. 

E. Option 2 Upper motor neurones. This man has bilateral upper motor neurone weakness of the legs with typically increased reflexes. A common cause would be a spinal cord injury, in which case further testing should show serious sensory loss on both sides. 

A. False This would depolarize the fibres completely. 

B. False Influx of cations is essential for depolarization. 

C. True However, conduction is slowed. 

D. False Nerve fibres stop conducting before tissue freezing occurs. 

E. True They continue to conduct until the electro chemical gradients created by the pump decline.