Explore topic-wise InterviewSolutions in Current Affairs.

This section includes 7 InterviewSolutions, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Current Affairs knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

Who among the following had the longest tenure as President or India?(a) VV Giri(b) Dr Rajendra Prasad(c) FA Ahmed(d) N Sanjeeva Reddy

Answer»

Dr Rajendra Prasad had the longest tenure as President or India.

2.

In the discharge of his functions, the Attorney General is assisted by : (a) a Solicitor General (b) two Solicitors-General and four Additional Solicitors-General (c) a Solicitor General and two Additional Solicitors General (d) None of the above

Answer»

(b) two Solicitors-General and four Additional Solicitors-General

3.

The first linguistic State, born in 1953, was(a) Andhra(b) Saurashtra(c) Gujarat(d) Maharashtra

Answer»

The first linguistic State, born in 1953, was Andhra

4.

In the discharge of his functions, the Attorney General is assisted by a Solicitor General and _____ Additional Solicitors General.(a) 2(b) 3(c) 4(d) 5

Answer»

In the discharge of his functions, the Attorney General is assisted by a Solicitor General and Additional Solicitors General.

5.

Before 1956, the present Kerala State was known as(a) Travancore(b) Cochin(c) Travancore-Cochin(d) Malabar

Answer»

Before 1956, the present Kerala State was known as Travancore-Cochin

6.

The Union Food Minister who had earned the sobriquet "Famine Minister" was(a) KM Munshi(b) Rafi Abmed Kidwai(c) NG Ayyangar(d) Raj Kumari Amrit Kaur 

Answer»

The Union Food Minister who had earned the sobriquet "Famine Minister" was KM Munshi

7.

A Constitution can be developed through(a) amendments(b) customs and usages(c) Judicial interpretations(d) All the three

Answer»

(d) All the three

8.

The question of disqualification of a member of a State Legislature shall be decided by the Governor after consultation with the(a) Chief Minister(b) Election Commission(c) Supreme Court(d) Public Service Commission 

Answer»

The question of disqualification of a member of a State Legislature shall be decided by the Governor after consultation with the Election Commission

9.

The Indian Army General who had earned the sobriquet 'Sparrow' was(a) KM Cariappa(b) Sam J Manekshaw(c) Rajinder Singh(d) KS Thimmayya

Answer»

The Indian Army General who had earned the sobriquet 'Sparrow' was  Rajinder Singh

10.

Who among the following has assumed the DGP charge of Andaman and Nicobar in December 2020?1. Niranjan Hiranandani2. Satyendra Garg3. Dependra Pathak4. Sumant Sinha

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Satyendra Garg

The correct answer is Satyendra Garg.

  • Satyendra Garg
    • Satyendra Garg, a 1987-batch IPS officer was posted as joint secretary in the Union home ministry.
    • He was handling the North East division in the home ministry as a joint secretary before being repatriated to his cadre.
  •  Director-General of Police (DGP)
    • The Director of Police is the highest-ranking police officer in an Indian State or Union Territory.
    • DGP typically heads the state or UT police force, is also called State Police Chief.
    • DGP is appointed by the Cabinet from the Indian Police Service and they hold a three-star rank.
    • The UPSC will prepare a panel of three officers to fit to be DGP and send it back.

  •  Niranjan Hiranandani
    • He is an Indian billionaire businessman, co-founder, and managing director of Hiranandani Group, engaged in the real estate business.
    • He is ranked by Forbes among the 100 richest Indians, with a net worth of US$ 1.6 billion as of June 2021.
    • In 2020, he was in the Top 10 Indian real estate tycoons according to the Grohe Hurun report and he was the second richest person in the Real estate Sector as per the IIFL Wealth Hurun India Rich List. 
    • Along with members of his family, Hiranandani controls the privately owned Hiranandani Group.
  • Sumant Sinha
    • He is an Indian businessman.
    • He is the Chairman and Managing Director of ReNew Power, India's largest renewable power producer and renewable energy unicorn, which was founded by him in 2011.
11.

When an army officer seizes power through a coup d' etat, he becomes(a) a de jure sovereign(b) a de facto sovereign(c) a popular sovereign(d) a titular sovereign

Answer»

(b) a de facto sovereign

12.

What is an antigen?

Answer»

Antigen is any substance, particle or infectious agent recognized as foreign to the body. The contact of the antigen with the body promotes a defense reaction against the antigen (unspecific, specific or both). 

13.

What are immunoglobulins?

Answer»

Immunoglobulin is the alternate name given to antibody. Immunoglobulins are complex proteins containing an invariable portion and a variable portion and made of four polypeptide chains. The variable portion of each immunoglobulin is responsible for the high specificity of the antigen-antibody bond. 

14.

How different are the actions of antibodies against bacteria and against virus? Why is the cellular immune response activated in case of chronic viral infection? 

Answer»

The antibodies of the humoral immune system act against extracellular agents, like toxins or bacteria, but they are not active in the intracellular space and they cannot fight virus efficiently.

In case of viral infection (and also of cancerous or precancerous cells) the immune attack is made by the cellular immune system, mediated by T and NK (natural killers) lymphocytes that destroy specific cells and virus.

15.

How do antibodies work to neutralize antigens?

Answer»

The antibodies, or immunoglobulins, act to facilitate the destruction of antigens: they attract phagocytic leukocytes, they trigger the attack of specific defense molecules (activation of the complement system) and they directly neutralize the toxicity of some antigens.

16.

Who among the following is an Indian diplomat elected to the United Nations Advisory Committee on Administrative and Budgetary Questions in November 2020?1. Anita Bhatia2. Soma Mondal3. Mahita Nagaraj4. Vidisha Maitra

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : Vidisha Maitra

The correct answer is Vidisha Maitra.

  • Advisory Committee on Administrative and Budgetary Questions
    • The Advisory Committee is an expert Committee of twenty-one Members.
    • It is elected by the General Assembly for a period of three years.
    • Members serve in a personal capacity and not as representatives of Member States.
    • The Chairman and Vice-Chairman of the Committee are elected by the Members of the Advisory Committee.
    • The Advisory Committee is serviced by a secretariat headed by an Executive Secretary, assisted by a Dep
  • Vidisha Maitra
    • Vidisha Maitra is an Indian Officer situated in New Delhi, India.
    • She split the UPSC Civil Services Examination 2008.
    • She turned into the Indian Foreign Service Officer (IFS) in 2009.
    • In a significant victory for India at the United Nations, Indian diplomat Vidisha Maitra was elected to the U.N. Advisory Committee on Administrative and Budgetary Questions (ACABQ), a subsidiary organ of the General Assembly.
    • She impeccably finished her preparation and got the gold decoration.
    • She is among the most up-to-date officials and the first secretary in the United Nations.
    • She cares for the neighbouring countries and the Shanghai Cooperation Organization.
    • She gave a discourse on the August Platform.

  • Anita Bhatia
    • Ms Bhatia has had a distinguished career at the World Bank Group, serving in various senior leadership and management positions, both at Headquarters and in the field.
    • She has served for several years as Director of Global Partnerships for the International Finance Corporation (IFC), the private sector arm of the World Bank Group.
    • She developed and expanded innovative partnerships with public and private sector partners to support IFC strategy in key areas, including fragile and conflict-affected states, gender equality, financial inclusion, support to women-owned businesses, and other priorities critical for the achievement of the Sustainable Develop.
  • Soma Mandal
    • Soma Mondal is the first woman chairperson in the vibrant history of SAIL. 
    • She was appointed as a Director with the company only in 2017. 
    • She had joined NALCO way back in 1984 as a Management Trainee after completing her engineering.
17.

Peppara Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in which of the following states?1. Meghalaya2. Tamil Nadu3. Punjab4. Kerala

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : Kerala

The correct answer is Kerala.

  • Peppara Wildlife Sanctuary 
    • The Peppara Wildlife Sanctuary is a wildlife sanctuary in the Thiruvananthapuram district of Kerala, India.
    • The Sanctuary is named after the Peppara Dam, commissioned in 1983 to augment the drinking water supply to Thiruvananthapuram city and suburban areas.
    • It is part of the Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve.
    • Peppara Wildlife Sanctuary is 44 kilometres by car from the nearest railway station, at Thiruvananthapuram, and 49 kilometres from the Thiruvananthapuram airport.
    • The sanctuary has several mammals, birds, reptiles, and amphibians. The common mammals found are tiger, leopard, sloth bear, elephant, sambar, bonnet macaque, Nilgiri langur, Nilgiri tahr.
  • Kerala
    • Chief Minister - Pinarayi Vijayan( On November 2021)
    • Governor- Arif Mohmmad Khan ( On November 2021) 
    • National Bird - Great Hornbill
    • National Animal - Indian Elephant
    • National Tree - Coconut Tree
    • National Flower - Kanikonna
    • National Parks - Anamudi Shola National Park, Eravikulam National Park, Pambadum Shola National Park, Periyar National Park, Silent Valley National Park.

StatesChief Minister (November 2021)Governor ( November 2021)Wildlife Sanctuary
MeghalayaConrad Kongkal SangmaSatya Pal MalikBaghmara Pitcher Plant Wildlife Sanctuary, Narpuh Wildlife Sanctuary, Nogkhyllem Wildlife Sanctuary Siju Wildlife sanctuary.
Tamil NaduPalaniswami R.N. RaviChitrangudi Bird Wildlife Sanctuary, Gangarikondam Spotted Dear Wildlife Sanctuary, Indira Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary, Kalakad Wildlife Sanctuary.
PunjabCharanjit Singh Channi Banwarilal PurohitAbohar Wildlife Sanctuary, Bir Aishvan Wildlife Sanctuary, Bir Bhadson Wildlife Sanctuary, Bir Dosanjh Wildlife Sanctuary

 

18.

After passing the epididymides through which structures do sperm cells go until exteriorization?

Answer»

After leaving the epididymis in the testicle sperm cells enter the vas deferens, after that they receive secretions from the seminal vesicles and gather (from right and left sides) in the ejaculatory duct that passes inside the prostate. They also get secretions from the prostate and the bulbourethral glands and then go through the urethra, inside the penis, to the exterior.

19.

Response to external stimulus is called _______________(a) reaction(b) immunity(c) response(d) irritability

Answer» Correct option is (d) irritability

The best I can explain: All organisms respond to external stimulus, a property known as irritability. Even the smallest amoeba and bacterial cell possess this feature. In response to external stimulus, a cell may activate from its whole range of metabolic pathways.
20.

What is the defense mechanism that begins to work when inflammation fails to stop an infection?

Answer»

If the inflammatory attack is not enough to halt the infectious process the body still relies on a specific defense, the immune response proper (humoral and cellular) performed by the lymphocytes.

21.

Why are vaccines made of the own disease agent or of fragments of it?

Answer»

The goal of vaccines is to artificially induce a specific primary immune response (and the consequent formation of antibodies and memory cells) concerning a given infection or disease in order to immunize the individual against infections by the pathogenic agent in the future.

Since each antibody does not act against a variety of antigens but instead it acts only against its specific antigen, it is necessary for the immune system to make contact in some way with the antigen against which the immunization is wanted. The reconnaissance of specific molecular portions of each antigen causes the immune system to produce the specific variable portion of the immunoglobulins to attack that antigen. Therefore to induce the active immunization it is necessary to inoculate into the body small parts of the infectious agent or the agent entirely (dead or inactivated).

22.

What is the difference between humoral specific immune response and cellular specific immune response?

Answer»

Humoral specific immune response is the defense system by means of antibodies, defense proteins secreted by lymphocytes that attack foreign agents with high specificity. Cellular specific immune response is the defense system by means of specific lymphocytes (cells) that directly attack other foreign cells and agents.

23.

Concerning reproduction what is the function of the testicles?

Answer»

The testicles are the male gonads, i.e., the organs where the production of gametes takes place. In human beings the gametes are made by meiosis that occur in the testicles.

24.

The parts in the figure are a)__________, b)_____________, c)___________, d)____________.(a) dendrites, soma, myelin sheath, nodes of ranvier(b) dendrites, soma, cell body, axon hillock, myelin sheath(c) soma, axon hillock, myelin sheath, dendrites(d) soma, axon hillock, axon, dendrites

Answer» Right option is (a) dendrites, soma, myelin sheath, nodes of ranvier

To elaborate: Dendrites are the fine extensions from cell body, responsible for receiving information from other neurons. The information is processed in soma and then travels down the length of the axon where myelin sheath is discontinuously present. The gaps between the sheath are called nodes of Ranvier.
25.

What is the difference between homologous and heterologous immunoglobulins?

Answer»

Homologous immunoglobulin is the human (from the same species) immunoglobulin. In case of inoculation in animals as in veterinary procedures homologous immunoglobulin is that from the blood of animals of the same species of the animal undergoing treatment. Heterologous immunoglobulin is that obtained from animals of different species from the individual into which it will be inoculated.

The homologous immunoglobulin is safer since it is collected from beings of the same species of the individual in which it will be inoculated and thus the risk of the antibodies to be recognized as foreign and to trigger an immune response is lower. Heterologous immunoglobulins are more prone to being destroyed by the own antibodies of the individual. 

26.

How are antivenoms produced? Why are antivenoms an example of passive immunization?

Answer»

Antivenoms are obtained by the following process: the venom (antigen) is inoculated into other mammals, e.g., in horses; these animals make specific antibodies against the antigen; blood from the animals is collected and purified to get the antibodies; this antibody-containing material is the antivenom. When a human being is infected by the antigen the specific antivenom is given to him/her and the action against the antigen occurs.

Antivenoms may also be administered as a preventive measure and, since it is basically made of specific immunoglobulins against some antigen, the process is an example of passive immunization.

27.

What are the organs that are part of the male genital system?

Answer»

The organs that comprise the male genital system are the testicles, the epididymides, the vas deferens, the seminal vesicles, the ejaculatory duct, the prostate, the bulbourethral glands, the urethra and the penis.

28.

Protein catalysts are called __________ and RNA catalysts are called _____________(a) enzymes, ribozymes(b) ribozymes, enzymes(c) enzymes, ribosomes(d) ribosomes, enzymes

Answer» The correct answer is (a) enzymes, ribozymes

The best I can explain: RNA catalysts are called ribozymes whereas protein catalysts are called enzymes. Most of the catalysts are enzymes made of proteins.
29.

Which of the following was first examined under a microscope that later led to the discovery of cells?(a) Honeycomb(b) Cork(c) Drosophila(d) Dead leaves

Answer» Correct option is (b) Cork

The best explanation: In the 16^th century, Robert Hooke first examined cork (part of barks of the trees) under a microscope. He saw it as a porous honeycomb like structure. He called these pores as cells.
30.

Who was the first person to describe various forms of bacteria?(a) Robert Hooke(b) Schwann and Schleiden(c) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek(d) Peter

Answer» The correct answer is (c) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek

Explanation: Antonie Van Leeuwenhoek from the Netherlands sold buttons and clothes to earn a living, in his spare time grinded glasses and constructed simple microscopes. He observed various forms of bacteria under the microscope which came from water in which pepper was soaked and scrapping of his teeth.
31.

Masses `m`,` 2m`, `3m`, `4m`,………,`12m` are kept on the peripheri of a clock having a circular dial. The masses are kept such that `m` is kept at `1, `2m` is kept at `2`, `3m` at `3`………`12m` at `12`. `vecg` is the gravitational field intensity at the centre of dial.A. At `9 : 30` the hour hand is in the direction of `vecg`B. At `3 : 30` the hour hand is in the direction of `vecg`C. there will be no component of `vecg` along hour hand at `6 : 30`D. There will be no component of `vecg` along hour hand at `12 : 30`

Answer» The field will be in the direction lying exactly between `9` and `10`.
`rArr A`, `C`, `D` are correct.
32.

A certain rough platform perform oscillating given by `y_(p)=A sin omegat hatj`, while another block kept on the platform perform oscillation on the platform given by `x_(B)=A cos(omegat)hati`. As seen from, the ground.A. The direction of frictional force on the block will always be opposite to its velocity relative to the platform.B. The direction of frictional force on the block will be always opposite to its velocity relative acceleration w.r.t. platform.C. The direction of frictional force on the block at any instant will be `cos(omegat)hati+sin(omegat)hatj`D. Direction of friction at any instant will be `sin(omegat)hati+cos(omegat)hatj`

Answer» `v_(p)=A omega cos omega hatj`
`v_(B)=-Aomega sin(omega t)hatj`
`rArr` Direction of friction `= cos omega t hati+sin omega t hatj`
33.

Who proposed that plant embryo arose from a single cell?(a) Matthias Schleiden(b) Theodor Schwann(c) Robert Hooke(d) Pasteur

Answer» The correct answer is (a) Matthias Schleiden

Easiest explanation: In 1838, German lawyer turned botanist Matthias Schleiden, proposed that plants were made of cells and that plant embryo arose from a single cell. Theodor Schwann, his colleague later proposed the cell theory.
34.

Which of the following is a tenet of cell theory, as proposed by Theodor Schwann?(a) Cell can be seen with naked eyes(b) Only animals are composed of cells(c) Cell is the structural unit of life(d) Not all organisms have cells

Answer» Right option is (c) Cell is the structural unit of life

For explanation I would say: Theodor Schwann proposed the cell theory, tenets of which include all organisms are composed of one or more cells and cell is the structural unit of life.
35.

Which of the following groups of amino acids are least soluble in water?(a) Polar(b) Non-polar(c) Polar charged(d) Polar uncharged

Answer» Right answer is (b) Non-polar

The explanation: Non-polar amino acids have side chains that are essentially hydrocarbons(sulphur in case of methionine and cysteine). This causes the amino acid water interaction to be weak and thus are sparsely soluble in water. The amino acids included in this category are alanine, valine, leucine, isoleucine, tryptophan, phenylalanine and methionine. Phenylalanine is least soluble due to its bulky aromatic side chain.
36.

Which of the following is an antibody against Aβ42 peptide?(a) Bapineuzumab(b) Cytoxan(c) Doxil(d) Adriamycin

Answer» Correct choice is (a) Bapineuzumab

Easy explanation: First anti-Aβ42 body came to be known as Bapineuzumab. This was used in clinical trials as a passive immunization technique for the treatment of Alzheimer’s disease.
37.

Which of the following bond is not present in DNA?(a) Phosphate bond(b) Hydrogen bond(c) VanderWaal’s force(d) Disulphide bond

Answer» The correct choice is (d) Disulphide bond

The best I can explain: Disulphide bond is not present in a DNA molecule. Phosphate bond is present between two deoxy-nucleotides (dNTPs) of DNA. The nitrogen bases on the two strands of DNA have hydrogen bonds between them. Adenine is connected Thymine by 2 hydrogen bonds, Guanine is bound to Cytosine by 3 hydrogen bonds. The base stacking in DNA is due to Vanderwaal’s force.
38.

Photon of light of higher wavelength has _____________ energy.(a) higher(b) lower(c) intermittent(d) dissipated

Answer» The correct answer is (b) lower

Explanation: Energy of photons are inversely proportional to the wavelength given by the formula E=hv. So the light having lower wavelength will have higher energy and vice verse.
39.

Choose the correct ionisation energy order for the given species ?A. `O gt S gt S^(-) gt O^(-)`B. `F gt F^(-) gt Cl^(-) gt Cl`C. `O gt O gt S gt S `D. `F gt Clgt Cl^(-) gt F`

Answer» Correct Answer - A::D
Ionization energy of anion `lt` atom
40.

You have studied the story of pepper moths in England. Had the industries been removed, what impact could it have had on the moth population? Discuss.

Answer»

In the population of Peppermoth, 2 variants were already existing in the population, the black and the grey. In the absence of Industrialisation, the grey moths were prevalent because they blended very well with the lichen and moss covered trees camouflage and the predators cannot spot them. The Black ones were easily spotted and killed by predators and therefore, were fewer in numbers. With Industrialisation, the stems got covered with black soot. This provided better camouflage to the black variant and their number increased. If the industries had been removed the population of black moths would have declined because as stated earlier they would have been spotted better by predators and therefore be eaten more frequently.

41.

Tablet Cetirizine is used for_____. a) Headache b) Allergies c) Heartburn d) Dehydration

Answer»

Tablet Cetirizine is used for Allergies

42.

_____ been made? A) Have the arrangements B) When the invitations C) The urgent steps D) A good salary was

Answer»

Correct option is A) Have the arrangements

43.

Name the process through which our body can eliminate the waste products into surrounding tissue by the blood for elimination via organs.

Answer»

The Excretion.

44.

Neurology is Study of _______System. a) Nervous b) Muscular c) Excretory d) Respiratory

Answer»

Neurology is Study of Nervous System. 

45.

Babu plays well? (a) does he (b) didn’t he (c) doesn’t (d) don’t he

Answer»

(a)  does he

46.

Waste products are eliminated into surrounding tissue to be transported by the blood for elimination via organs in the process of _____. a) Excretion b) Respiration c) Metabolism d) Reproduction

Answer»

Waste products are eliminated into surrounding tissue to be transported by the blood for elimination via organs in the process of Excretion

47.

Read the conversation and fill in the blank choosing the correct ‘If Clause’ given below: Mahesh : Why can’t you come with me Siddesh? Siddesh : No, I have some urgent work now. Mahesh : May I know the correct reason Siddesh? Siddesh : I don’t have vehicle to take my dad to the hospital that’s it.Mahesh : Is it? If you had told me earlier, I ………………….. a vehicle. a. will arrange b. would have arranged c. would arrange d. shall arrange.

Answer»

b. would have arranged

48.

Cytology is Study of ______. a) Tissues b) Cells c) Blood d) Muscles

Answer»

Cytology is Study of Cells.

49.

Statistical methods are no substitute for common sense. Comment.

Answer» This is true that Statistical methods are no substitute for common sense. Statistical data should not be believed blindly as it can be misinterpreted or misused.
50.

Write any four slogans on the conservation of natural resources.

Answer»

Slogans : 

(1) Waste water today - live in desert tomorrow. 

(2) Practice eco-friendly methods. 

(3) Use natural resources judiciously. 

(4) Save nature - Save future.