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The correct answer is (B) RADIATION monitors

The best explanation: Radiation monitors are used to DETECT ILS failure. They are placed at a particular DISTANCE away from the runway to check for errors in ILS transmission or DRIFT in the frequency of radiation.

Right choice is (a) BEYOND the stop end of the runway

Best EXPLANATION: The localizer antenna is CENTERED on the runway beyond the stop end to provide lateral GUIDANCE. The glide slope is located beside the runway near the threshold to provide VERTICAL guidance.

Right answer is (c) ICAO standards and recommended practices

For EXPLANATION: The ICAO Standards and Recommended Practices for the ILS, SUBSCRIBED by the180 MEMBER states, standardize the signal in SPACE for the ILS ground TRANSMITTING equipment, no matter where they are manufactured to maintain international standards.

The CORRECT option is (d) Depends upon density of traffic on the airspace

For explanation: High density AIRPORTS where a lots of planes land and take off typically have more than one runways with MULTIPLE ILS systems. Chicago’s O’Hare airport had an ILS installed on 12 runways in 1996.

Correct answer is (a) ILS

The explanation: The instrument landing system or ILS is a collection of radio transmitting STATIONS used to GUIDE aircraft to a specific AIRPORT runway, especially during times of LIMITED visibility.

Correct CHOICE is (a) True

To explain: In the early 1970S the BRITISH Trident and the U.S. L-1011 aircraft including their autoland systems were certified for Category III A operations in revenue service using guidance information form the ILS and other on-board sensors.

Right option is (a) Gain scheduling

To explain: The localizer gain must be SCHEDULED to decrease as the runway is approached because the SURFACES of constant DDM coverage to make the ERROR signal more sensitive to DISTANT displacement.

Right option is (a) 75ft

To ELABORATE: The flare COMMAND is initiated at a WHEEL HEIGHT of about 75ft, well before the runway threshold. However, the radar altimeter may not be used prior to threshold due to uneven TERRAIN or tidal variations.

Correct answer is (d) 1.5 ft

For explanation I would say: Low range radar altimeters have a nominal accuracy of 1.5 ft below 100ft altitude and 2% of full scale at HIGHER altitude. They have a low noise OUTPUT that allows the DERIVATION of vertical RATE INFORMATION.

The correct ANSWER is (b) Category II

The best explanation: Air carrier AIRCRAFT that are authorized for precision APPROACH below Category II must have an automatic landing system. Auto land systems use information from various landing systems LIKE ILS Tacan and at some cases even GPS to safely land the aircraft.

Right option is (d) Gain scheduling

Easy explanation: During the final approach the glide slope gain in the AUTO LAND SYSTEM is reduced in a PROGRAMMED fashion and is CALLED gain scheduling. Supplementary sensors must supply the vertical guidance below 100ft.

Correct choice is (d) 5-10%

Explanation: Since during a flare maneuver the angle of attack is increased both lift and drag is increased. The excess lift CAUSES upward acceleration to reduce the rate of descent and the INCREASE in drag accounts for the REDUCTION in the speed of the aircraft.

The CORRECT choice is (d) 3ft/sec

The BEST I can EXPLAIN: Land based aircraft are not designed to touch down at the 6 to 16ft/sec sink RATE that exists along the glide path. Thus, a flare MANEUVER must be executed to reduce the descent rate to less than 3ft/sec at touchdown.

Right choice is (a) Pitch, roll and azimuth cues

For explanation I WOULD say: The light BARS provide azimuth, roll and pitch cues to the pilot. CENTER line and EDGE lights provide rollout cues.

Correct answer is (c) INITIAL and FINAL approach fix

The best I can explain: Approach ALTITUDES are measured barometrically and the TRANSITION flight path is defined by initial and final approach fixes using Tacan and marker beacons. Radar vectors can also be used at TIMES.

Correct CHOICE is (a) True

For explanation I would say: In DETERIORATED weather, operations MUST be conducted under IFR or instrument flight rules. An IFR instrument procedure is either precision or non precision. Category I, II, III are precision approach PROCEDURES.

Right OPTION is (d) ALERT height

The EXPLANATION: Alert height is the altitude below which landing may continue in case of EQUIPMENT failure. To meet alert height restrictions, either the avionics must be fault tolerant or the crew must be ABLE to take over manually.

Right option is (b) CATEGORY III C

To explain I would say: Category III C is the system’s ABILITY to FLY under zero VISIBILITY conditions. It has no DH and RVR limits.

The correct ANSWER is (c) HEAD up display

The explanation is: In a category II system the aircraft must carry DUAL ILS receivers, dual flight directors, TWO pilots, radar altimeter, rain removal equipment and missed approach attitude guidance. Auto THROTTLE system may also be required.

The correct choice is (b) False

The BEST I can explain: The aircraft require ILS and marker beacon receivers beyond other REQUIREMENTS for flights under IFR. Category I approaches are performed ROUTINELY by PILOTS with instrument rating.

The correct answer is (d) 200FT

Easy explanation: The DECISION height for CATEGORY I SYSTEMS is not less than 200ft, visibility not less than 2600ft, or RUNWAY visual range not less than 1800ft with appropriate runway lighting.

Correct CHOICE is (b) Decision height

To explain: During a LANDING, the decision height or DH is the height above the RUNWAY at which the landing MUST be aborted if the runway is not in sight. Usually, with better avionic systems and electronic aids, the DH can be lowered.

The correct choice is (a) Instrument meteorological conditions

For explanation I would say: Instrument meteorological conditions or IMC are those in which visibility is restricted to various DEGREES defined by law in CERTAIN countries. AIRCRAFT operating in IMC are supposed to fly under instrument flight rules also defined by law.