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20000÷ 10×100 and 2014 is 50000÷10×100

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stock is valued at market price which ever less because EVERY businessman WANTS to maximize profit in his PERSONAL account books and want to keep record as that can't be loss in future. and if CLOSING stock given in adjustment then it will put in firstly Trading account then put in BALANCE sheets according their add or less adjustments. I think it will beneficial. thanks

's a/c ....DR. to cash/bank a/c

and LOSS APPROPRIATION a/c

iscount Ac.....DR            200CASH discount Ac ......>DR          80Cash Ac...........................DR          1488Harish AC........................DR           2232   To Sales Ac                               4000

a/c DR €300 to BANK a/c €300 2. DRAWINGS a/c Dr €500 to bank a/c €500

of p/l APP AC

t of work uncertified is 200,000Explanation:Computing the cost of work done in 1 as:Value of 3/4 work completed = 300,000For 1 Value of 1 work completed = 300,000 × 4/ 3Value of 1 work completed = 100,000 × 4Value of 1 work completed = 400,000So, 1/2 work is CERTIFIED as computed as:Value of work certified = 400,000 × 1/2Value of work certified = 200,000Now, computing the cost of work uncertified as the formula:INCOME on a Contract = Value of Work Certified + Cost of Work UncertifiedSo, Cost of work uncertified = Income on a contract - Value of work certifiedwhereIncome on a contract is 400,000Value of work certified is 200,000putting the VALUED above:Cost of work uncertified = 400,000 - 200,000Cost of work uncertified = 200,000

in RS 225 rs CASHBACK

nt TDS rates are applicable to DIFFERENT assessees on the basis of the age and income bracket that they fall under. The TDS rates chart is predetermined and the tax is deducted for different assessees on the basis of these charts.Tax Deducted at Source or TDS is referred to a TYPE of tax where an individual is liable to deduct tax for services rendered. The tax deducted from the total payment amount goes to the government for various types of activities such as infrastructure development, defence, development, etc. Depending on the type of SERVICE, a CERTAIN type of tax (TDS) is levied that the payee is expected to deduct. If the individual has deducted more than the required tax amount, he/she will be eligible for a TDS Refund. The individual will require filing their TDS Return in order to receive the refund amount. TDS can be collected on a regular, periodic, or occasional basis, it is applicable to salary, INTEREST, commission, fee, etc.

d COSTING is the practice of SUBSTITUTING an expected cost for an actual cost in the accounting RECORDS. Subsequently, VARIANCES are recorded to show the difference between the expected and actual costs

Preference Capital. ... Because dividends are paid out of PROFITS after taxes, the question of after tax or before tax cost of preference SHARES does not ARISE as in CASE of cost of DEBENTURES. Preference shares can be divided into: Irredeemable preference shares.

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.1400Discount Dr.200To SURAJ's AC 1600

ing Treatment for Unrecorded ASSETS Unrecorded asset is an asset, the VALUE of which has been written off in the books of accounts but the asset is STILL in usable position. The accounting treatment for unrecorded asset is:a) When the unrecorded asset is sold for cashCash A/cDr. To Realisation A/c (Unrecorded assets sold for cash)  b) When the unrecorded asset is taken over by any partnerPartner's CAPITAL A/cDr. To Realisation A/c (Unrecorded asset taken over by the partner)  ii) Accounting Treatment for Unrecorded Liabilities Unrecorded liabilities are those liabilities which are not recorded in the books of account. The accounting treatment for unrecorded liability is:a) When the unrecorded liability is paid offRealisation A/cDr. To Cash A/c (Unrecorded liability paid in cash)  b) When the unrecorded liability is taken over by a partnerRealisation A/cDr. To Partner's Capital A/c (Unrecorded liability  taken over by the partner)

ta here is ur ANSWER ✌️✌️....DEBIT Interest Balance Interest - This means the interest which we are entitled to receive from the bank for the debit balancemaintained in the bank account..... Credit Interest Balance Interest - This means theinterest which we are due to pay to the bank for the OVERDRAWN amount.....There are two defined interest calculation types in the SAP System. ..✍️✍️.... System defined variant for balance interest calculation type is „S‟ and ITEM interest calculation type is „P‟....HOPE it helps u❤️❤️...Balance interest type calculation is used for G L Accounts. Item interest type calculation is used for vendors and customers.

Ratio=Current Assets/Current LiabilitiesCurrent Liabilities=Current Assets-Working CAPITAL      X  =750000-250000         x=500000       CR=750000/500000    =3:2

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NG  FINANCIAL ANALYSISAccounting StandardREVIEWED BY WILL KENTON  Updated MAY 22, 2018What is an Accounting StandardAn accounting standard is a common set of principles, standards and procedures that define the basis of financial accounting policies and practices. Accounting standards improve the transparency of financial reporting in all countries. In the United States, the Generally Accepted Accounting Principles form the set of accounting standards widely accepted for preparing financial STATEMENTS. International COMPANIES follow the International Financial Reporting Standards, which are set by the International Accounting Standards BOARD and serve as the guideline for non-U.S. GAAP companies reporting financial statements.

of your QUESTION is 99000

be not SURE but i am SHORT CONFUSE BRO

CasePrincipal = 2000Rate = 10% p.a.A = P ( 1 + r)n                 100A=  2000[ 1 + 10/100]1   =  2000 * 110/100   =  2200 Prashant's CasePrincipal = 2000Rate = 10% p.a.  or  5% half - yearlyA = 2000 (1 + 5/100)2-no. of half years   = 2000 * 105/100 * 105//100   =2205The Difference2205 - 2200 = 5 rupees .Hope this will HELP you MARK me as a Brainliest.

sum of money (principal) be RS. 100∴ A.T.Q. -Amount=3×principal∴ Amount = 3×100=Rs. 300∵Interest(I) = (A)Amount-Principal(P)∴ I = (300-100)Rs.=Rs.200and ∵ I = (P×R×T)/100∴ 200 = (100×R×16)/100⇒ 200 = (1600×R) /100⇒ R = (200×100)/1600⇒ R = 12.5%In case 2 :Amount = 4×principal∴ A =( 4×100)Rs.= Rs. 400∵ I = A-P∴ I = (400-100)Rs.=Rs. 300Time =?Rate = 12.5 % p.a(PER annum OR per year)∵ Time = (Interset × 100)/P ×R∴ Time = (300 × 100)/(100 ×12.5)⇒ Time = 24 YearsHope it helps.Mark me as a BRAINLIEST.

don't KNOW the ANSWER. ..

unting as an INFORMATION system (AIS) is a system of collecting, storing and processing financial and accounting data that are used by DECISION MAKERS. An accounting information system is GENERALLY a computer-based method for tracking accounting activity in conjunction with information technology resources.

en Excel.Notice there are rows and columns. Each column has a capital letter on the TOP to SHOW what column it is. ...CLICK cell A1 and type: Item.Click cell B1 and type: Cost.Click cell A2 and type: Printing.Click in cell B2 and type 80.00. ...Click cell A3 and type: Postage.Click cell B3 and type: 75.55.

partner’s capital account SHOWS a debit balance on dissolution of the firm, he has to pay the debit balance to the firm to settle his account. If the partner becomes insolvent, he is unable to pay back the amount owed by him to the firm in full. The amount not paid is a loss to the firm which under the Garner vs Murray Rule is to be BORNE by the solvent partners.According to Garner vs Murray Rule:The loss on account of insolvency of a partner is a CAPITAL loss which should be borne by the solvent partners in the ratio of their capitals standing in the balance sheet on the date of dissolution of the firm.Notes:“Capital” in this case relates to the real capital of the partners and not capital as may be standing in the books of partnership firm in the names of different partners. This distinction is especially critical when the partners are maintaining their capital accounts on FLUCTUATION capital system. The true capitals according to this rule will be ascertained after making all adjustments regarding reserves, drawings, unrecorded assets on the date of the balance sheet on the date of dissolution of the partnership firm. When the capitals are FIXED, no such adjustment is required.Where a partner is solvent but has a debit balance in his/her capital account, just before the dissolution of the partnership firm, such a partner will not be required to bear the loss on account of insolvency of a partner.The rules dictates that:-The solvent partners should bring in cash equivalent to their respective share of loss on realization andThe loss due to the insolvency of a partner should be then be divided among the solvent partners in the ratio of capitals standing after the partners have brought in cash equal to their share of loss on realizationHope it HELP. Mark it brainliest

t will be the difference between TOTAL VALUE of all instalments and the CASH price

.100000To SHARE CAPITAL 10000To SECURITIES PREMIUM 90000

of FACE VALUE of shares purchasedso,face value of shares PURCHASED =300/8%=3750Face value of one SHARE =10so,no.of shares purchased=3750/10=375 shares