1.

If h(n) has finite energy and h(n)=0 for n

Answer»

The correct answer is (b) \(\int_{-π}^π|ln⁡ |H(ω)||dω \LT \infty\)

Easy EXPLANATION: If h(n) has finite energy and h(n)=0 for n<0, then according to the Paley-Wiener THEOREM, we have

\(\int_{-π}^π|ln⁡ |H(ω)||dω \lt \infty\)



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