1.

If `int_(0)^(pi//2) log(cosx) dx=pi/2 log (1/2),` then `int_(0) ^(pi//2) log (sec x ) dx = `A. `(pi)/(2)log((1)/(2))`B. `1-(pi)/(2)log((1)/(2))`C. `1+(pi)/(2)log((1)/(2))`D. `(pi)/(2)log2`

Answer» Correct Answer - D


Discussion

No Comment Found

Related InterviewSolutions