InterviewSolution
 Saved Bookmarks
    				| 1. | 
                                    If `int_(0)^(pi//2) log(cosx) dx=pi/2 log (1/2),` then `int_(0) ^(pi//2) log (sec x ) dx = `A. `(pi)/(2)log((1)/(2))`B. `1-(pi)/(2)log((1)/(2))`C. `1+(pi)/(2)log((1)/(2))`D. `(pi)/(2)log2` | 
                            
| Answer» Correct Answer - D | |