1.

Plz help.....?!???!! ​

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Answer:

ANSWER

Since △APB and parallelogram ABCD are on the same base AB and between the same parallels.

Therefore,

ar(△APB)=

2

1

ar(∥

gm

ABCD) .......(1)

SIMILARLY,

ar(△BQC)=

2

1

ar(∥

gm

ABCD) ......(2)

From 1 and 2, we GET,

ar(△APB)=ar(△BQC)

solution

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