1.

Using the principle of mathematical induction. Prove that `(x^(n)-y^(n))` is divisible by (x-y) for all ` n in N`.

Answer» Let the given statement be P(n). Then,
`P(n): (x^(n)-y^(n))` is divisible by (x - y).
When n =1, the given statement becomes: `(x^(1)-y^(1))` is divisible by (x-y), which is clearly true.
` :. ` P(1) is true.
Let P(k) be true. Then,
`P(k): (x^(k)-y^(k))` is divisible by (x - y). ...(i)
Now, `(x^(k+1)-y^(y+1))`
` ={x^(k+1)-x^(k)y+x^(k)y-y^(k+1)}` [on adding and subtracting ` x^(k) y`]
` = x^(k) (x-y)+y(x^(k)-y^(k))`, which is divisible by (x - y) [using (i)].
Thus, P(k+1) is true, whenever P(k) is true.
`:. `P(1) is true and P(k+1) is true, whenever P(k) is true.
Hence, by the principle of mathematical induction, it follows that
`(x^(n)-y^(n))` is divisible by (x-y) for all ` n in N`.


Discussion

No Comment Found