Which of these is linearized velocity potential equation?(a) (1 – M\(_∞^2\))ϕxx + ϕyy + ϕzz = 0(b) ϕxx + (1 – M\(_∞^2\))ϕyy + ϕzz = 0(c) ϕxx + ϕyy + (1 – M\(_∞^2\))ϕzz = 0(d) (1 – M\(_∞^2\))[ϕxx + ϕyy + ϕzz] = 0The question was asked at a job interview.This intriguing question originated from Linearized Velocity Potential Equation topic in chapter Linearized and Conical Flows of Aerodynamics

Which of these is linearized velocity potential equation?(a) (1 – M\

1.	Which of these is linearized velocity potential equation?(a) (1 – M\(_∞^2\))ϕxx + ϕyy + ϕzz = 0(b) ϕxx + (1 – M\(_∞^2\))ϕyy + ϕzz = 0(c) ϕxx + ϕyy + (1 – M\(_∞^2\))ϕzz = 0(d) (1 – M\(_∞^2\))[ϕxx + ϕyy + ϕzz] = 0The question was asked at a job interview.This intriguing question originated from Linearized Velocity Potential Equation topic in chapter Linearized and Conical Flows of Aerodynamics
Answer» The correct option is (a) (1 – M\(_∞^2\))ϕxx + ϕyy + ϕzz = 0 To explain I would say: When the ASSUMPTIONS of small PERTURBATIONS and transonic, hypersonic conditions are excluded, the linearized velocity potential equation is FOUND out as follows: (1 – M\(_∞^2\))ϕxx + ϕyy + ϕzz = 0 Where, ϕxx = \(\FRAC {∂^2 ϕ}{∂x^2}\), ϕyy = \(\frac {∂^2 ϕ}{∂y^2}\), ϕzz = \(\frac {∂^2 ϕ}{∂z^2}\)

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