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Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Biology Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level. MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter Wise with Answers was Prepared based on Latest Exam Pattern and syllabus. It helps you to analyze your knowledge of the chapter. 

These important MCQ Questions of Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants are prepared by our academic experts based on the latest syllabus guidelines prescribed by CBSE. We are providing here CBSE Class 12 Biology MCQ Questions of Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants with Answers for practicing students. Practice the Biology MCQ Questions for Class 12 with Answers available here.

Practice MCQ Question for Class 12 Biology chapter-wise

1. Pollination in Lotus is:

(a) By water
(b) By wind
(c) By insect
(d) All of these

2. After fertilization ovule develops into:

(a) Integument
(b) Seed
(c) Embryo
(d) Endosperm

3. Parthenogenesis is common in :

(a) Grape
(b) Mango
(c) Citrus
(d) Litchi

4. An orthotropous ovule is one in which micropyle and chalaza are :

(a) Oblique to funiculus
(b) At right angles to funiculus
(c) In a straight line with funiculus
(d) Parallel to funiculus

5. In an ovule meiotic takes place in:

(a) Nucellus
(b) Megaspore mother cell
(c) Megaspore
(d) Archesporium

6. Totipotency is

(a) Development of fruit from a flower in a medium
(b) Development of an organ from a cell in a medium
(c) Development of tissues of all kinds from a cell in a medium
(d) Development of tissues of all kinds from a cell in a medium

7. A typical angiospermic embryo sac is usually:

(a) One-celled
(b) Two-celled
(c) Five-celled
(d) seven-celled

8. If cotyledons are brought above the soil the germination is:

(a) Hypogeal
(b) Epigeal
(c) Vivipaiy
(d) None of these

9. In Monocots, grafting is almost impossible because they lack :

(a) Cambium
(b) Ground tissue
(c) Vascular bundle
(d) Parenchymatous cells

10. How many meiotic divisions are necessary to produce 100 pollen grains?

(a) 100
(b) 50
(c) 25
(d) 20

11. Pollination by snails is called:

(a) Malecophily
(b) Zoophily
(c) Anemophily
(d) Hydrophily

12. When pollen tube enters into the nucellus through micropyle is called:

(a) Porogamy
(b) Xenogamy
(c) Mesogamy
(d) Dikogamy

13. Stalk of ovule is called :

(a) Funicle
(b) Caruncle
(c) Nucellus
(d) Pedicel

14. The function of the tapetum is to

(a) produce ubisch bodies
(b) produce pollen grains
(c) provide nourishment to the developing pollen grains
(d) store and protect pollen grains

15. Embryo sac is to ovule as _______ is to an anther

(a) Pollen grain
(b) Androecium
(c) Filament
(d) Stamen

16. In a breeding experiment, the selected male parent is diploid and the female parent is tetraploid. What will be the ploidy level of the endosperm that will develop after double fertilization?

(a) Pentaploid
(b) Tetraploid
(c) Triploid
(d) Diploid

17. When the pollen of a flower is transferred to the stigma of another flower on the same plant, the process is known as

(a) geitonogamy
(b) autogamy
(c) Both
(d) None of these

18. Wind pollination is common in

(a) Grasses
(b) Lilies
(c) All of these
(d) Legumes

19. In an embryo sac, the cells that degenerate after fertilisation are

(a) Synergids and antipodals
(b) Synergids and antipodals
(c) Antipodals and primary endosperm cell
(d) None of these

20. Which of the following floral parts forms the pericarp after fertilisation?

(a) Ovary wall
(b) Inner integument
(c) Outer integument
(d) All of these

21. In ginger vegetative propagation occurs through

(a) Rhizome
(b) Offsets
(c) Bulbils
(d) None of these

22. An example of a seed with endosperm, perisperm, and caruncle is

(a) Coffee
(b) Lily
(c) Castor
(d) Cotton

23. Which of the following is an example of false fruit?

(a) Apple
(b) Coconut
(c) Mango
(d) Papaya

24. How many meiotic divisions are required to form 64 pollen grains? 

(a) 64
(b) 80
(c) 16
(d) 32

25. The coconut water from tender coconut represents

(a) fleshy mesocarp
(b) free-nuclear proembryo
(c) free-nuclear endosperm
(d) endocarp

Answer:

1. Answer : (c) By insect

Explanation: Lotus plants are cross-pollinated by beetles. Beetles are drawn towards the Lotus flowers by the characteristic odor of the nectar.

2. Answer : (b) Seed

Explanation: After fertilization occurs, each ovule develops into a seed. Each seed contains a tiny, undeveloped plant called an embryo. The ovary surrounding the ovules develops into a fruit that contains one or more seeds.

3. Answer : (a) Grape

Explanation: Parthenocarpy is seen in only plants. Parthenogenesis occurs in both plants and animals. Some of the examples where parthenocarpy includes pineapple, banana, guava, grapes, tomato, apple, papaya, etc.

4. Answer : (c) In a straight line with funiculus

Explanation: An orthotropous ovule has the micropyle and chalaza in a straight line of the funiculus. Such type of ovule is also known as straight or erect ovule. It is also known as anatropous ovule.

5. Answer : (b) Megaspore mother cell

Explanation:  Meiotic division takes place in an ovule to form Megaspore mother cell. Meiotic cell division is a fertilization process in some plants it takes place in the ovule to form megasporangium.

6. Answer : (c) Development of tissues of all kinds from a cell in a medium

Explanation: The ability of a single cell to divide and produce all the differentiated cells in an organism, including extraembryonic tissues. Totipotent cells formed during sexual and asexual reproduction include spores and zygotes.

7. Answer : (d) seven-celled

Explanation: The embryo sac of angiosperms consists of seven cells. A typical angiosperm embryo at maturity is called 7 celled 8 nucleates. The cells are arranged in three sets. In the centre, there are two polar nuclei which are a part of the large central cell.

8.Answer : (b) Epigeal

Explanation: In many dicotyledons like beans, castor, and some monocotyledons, the cotyledon is pushed above the soil by rapid elongation of the hypocotyl and they function as photosynthetic organs till the establishment of the seedling. This kind of germination is known as epigeal germination.

9. Answer : (a) Cambium

Explanation: Monocots cannot be grafted as they lack cambium tissue. The dicot plants have the cambium tissue which is a meristematic tissue and is present in the vascular bundles of the plant. ... The lack of cambium in monocot plants makes it impractical to graft.

10. Answer : (c) 25

Explanation: One meiotic division in a pollen mother cell gives rise to 4 microspores, which develop into 4 pollen grains, therefore 25 meiotic divisions are required to produce 100 pollen grains.

11. Answer : (a) Malecophily

Explanation: The pollination in which snails and slugs help in doing pollination is called Malacophilous and the flower which got pollinated by the snails and slug are called malacophilous.

12. Answer : (a) Porogamy

Explanation: The pollen tube containing male gametes enters the ovule in majority of cases through micropyle by a process termed porogamy.

13. Answer : (a) Funicle

Explanation: Stalk of the ovule is called Funiculus or Funiculi. This is needed for the attachment of ovules to the placenta in the ovary.

14. Answer : (c) provides nourishment to the developing pollen grains

Explanation: The tapetum is a specialized layer of nutritive cells found within the anther, of flowering plants, where it is located between the sporangenous tissue and the anther wall. Tapetum is important for the nutrition and development of pollen grains, as well as a source of precursors for the pollen coat.

15. Answer : (a) Pollen grain

Explanation: Each ovule has an embryo sac. Which in turn has a single egg cell. Similarly, in a majority of angiosperms, each stamen consists of a bilobed anther, which in turn has two pollen sacs in lobe, consisting of pollen grains.

16. Answer : (a) Pentaploid

Explanation: Polyploidy is a condition that has more than two sets of chromosomes. If an angiosperm male plant is diploid and a female plant is tetraploid, the ploidy level of endosperm will be pentaploid because the female gametes undergoes meiosis and forms gametes (2n).

17. Answer :(a) geitonogamy

Explanation: The transfer of pollen grains from the anther of one flower to the stigma of another flower of the same plant is called geitonogamy. This transfer involves an agent of pollination. Genetically, it is similar to autogamy since the pollen grains come from the same plant.

18. Answer :(a) Grasses

Explanation: Grasses are commonly pollinated by the wind and are known as Anemophily. These are monocot plants. Tall grass-like plants known as cereal grasses produce kernels (called cereal grain) at the top of their stalks

19. Answer : (a) Synergids and antipodals

Explanation: Synergids and antipodals are the cells that are present in the embryo sac at the time of fertilization. Once the fertilization of the male gamete and the egg occurs and the zygote is formed. The synergids and antipodal cells degenerate after that and the ovary converts into a fruit.

20. Answer : (a) Ovary wall

Explanation: After fertilization, the mature, ripened ovary develops into a fruit. The ovary wall forms the covering of the fruit called fruit wall or pericarp.

21. Answer : (a) Rhizome

Explanation: The vegetative propagation through the underground stem or rhizome occurs in ginger.

22. Answer : (c) Castor

Explanation: castor is the example of a seed with endosperm, perisperm, and caruncle.

23. Answer : (a) Apple

Explanation: The false fruit includes seedless fruits. Some examples of false fruit are apple, pear, gourd, and cucumber that develop from the thalamus, cashew-nut develops from the peduncle, jackfruit and pineapple develop from the entire inflorescence. Some other examples are banana, strawberry, etc.

24. Answer : (c) 16

Explanation: Each pollen mother cell (PMC), by a meiotic division, gives rise to a group of four haploid microspores. Thus, 16 pollen mother cells undergo meiotic divisions to produce 64 pollen grains.

25. Answer : (c) free-nuclear endosperm

Explanation: In Cocos nucifera (coconut), the coconut water represents free-nuclear endosperm and the surrounding kernel represents the cellular endosperm.

Click here to practice  MCQ Question for Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Class 12  

Buoyancy   is the function of Aerenchyma in aquatic plant.

These are slender, specialized, parenchymatous cells associated with sieve tubes and arise from a single mother cell by unequal division.

The MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with answers have been prepared based on the latest trends like syllabus and examination pattern suggested by CBSE, NCERT. Multiple Choice Questions for important part of Biology exams for Class 12. By Solving, these Class 12 MCQ Questions of Reproduction in Organisms with Answers students can check their preparation level for exams. 

MCQ Questions can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts by quick revision of the chapter and increasing subject knowledge. If practiced properly, it can help you to get higher marks. Refer to more Chapter-wise MCQ Questions for Class 12 and also learn more latest study material for all subjects.

Practice MCQ Question for Class 12 Biology chapter-wise

1. Pollination by Bat is called :

(a) Omithorphily
(b) Entemophily
(c) Cheropterophily
(d) Hydrophily

2. Entemophily take place by

(a) By Bird
(b) By Bat
(c) By Wind
(d) By Insect

3. An example of rhizome is

(a) Garlic
(b) Colocassia
(c) Ginger
(d) Onion

 4. Budding is the example of :

(a) Vegetative reproduction
(b) Tissue culture
(c) Sexual production
(d) Dispersal

5. Asexual reproduction in Penicillium fungus usually takes place through?

(a) Budding
(b) Fission
(c) Conidia
(d) Gemmules

6. The reproduction takes place by gemma :

(a) In higher plants
(b) In lower animals
(c) In some bryophytes
(d) In mammals

7. The example of bulb is:

(a) Ginger
(b) Doob grass
(c) Onion
(d) Potato

8. The term scion is used in relation to :

(a) Embryology
(b) Sexual reproduction
(c) Pollen
(d) Grafting

9. Vegetative reproduction takes place in Agave:

(a) By bulbils
(b) By hybrid
(c) By stolon
(d) By rhizome

10. A human female reaches menopause around the age of:

(a) 70 years
(b) 50 years
(c) 25 years
(d) 15 years

11. The membranous cover of the ovum at ovulation is:

(a) Zona pellucida
(b) Zona radiata
(c) Corona radiata
(d) Chorion

12. Eye lens is formed from

(a) Ectoderm
(b) Mesoderm
(c) Endoderm
(d) Ectoderm and Mesoderm

13. Vegetative propagation in mint occurs by

(a) Sucker
(b) Rhizome
(c) Offset
(d) Runner

14. During regeneration, modification of an organ to other organ is known as

(a) Morphogenesis
(b) Epimorphosis
(c) Morphallaxis
(d) Accretionary growth

15. The menstrual cycle is completed in

(a) 28 days
(b) 31 days
(c) 27 days
(d) 30 days

16. Termination of gastrulation is indicated by

(a) Obliteration of blastocoel
(b) Obliteration of archenteron
(c) Closure of blastopore
(d) Closure of neural tube

17. Which of the following is developed by parthenogenesis:

(a) Drones
(b) Queen honey bee
(c) Worker honey bee
(d) Both (b) and (c)

18. Meroblastic cleavage refers to which type of division of egg?

(a) Complete
(b) Incomplete
(c) Horizontal
(d) Spiral

19. The female gametophyte in angiosperm is also known as.............

(a) Egg
(b) Embryo sac
(c) Carpel
(d) Ovule

20. Apomixis means.....

(a) Formation of seeds without fusion of gamete
(b) Sexual reproduction
(c) Formation of seedless fruit
(d) Vegetative propagation

21. In animals, the juvenile phase is followed by,

(a) reproductive phase
(b) senescent phase
(c) old age
(d) vegetative phase

22. External fertilisation occurs in majority of

(a) fungi
(b) liverworts
(c) algae
(d) mosses

23. Isogametes are seen in:

(a) Cladophora
(b) Fucus
(c) Human beings
(d) Ficus

24. Which animal has the longest gestation period?

(a) Shark
(b) Walrus
(c) Elephant
(d) Dog

25. Many mammals, especially in natural, wild conditions are:

(a) Continuous breeders
(b) Seasonal breeders
(c) Both continuous and seasonal breeders
(d) Very much disease sensitive

Answer:

1. Answer : (c) Cheropterophily

Explanation: The pollination of plants by bats is called chiropterophily. Plants pollinated by bats often have pale nocturnal flowers (in contrast, bees are mostly attracted to bright, daytime flowers).

2.  Answer : (d) By Insect

Explanation: Entomophily or insect pollination is a form of pollination whereby pollen of plants, especially but not only of flowering plants, is distributed by insects.

3. Answer : (c) Ginger

Explanation: Rhizomes are stems that help plants to reproduce asexually, survive in winter, store food, and make stem tubers. Examples of rhizomes include bamboos, ginger, turmeric, and others.

 4. Answer : (a) Vegetative reproduction

Explanation: Because new plants can grow from older plants using vegetative propagation methods such as grafting and budding. It is a form of asexual reproduction seen in plants. This process involves only a single plant and the offspring that arises is identical, both genetically and morphologically, to the parent plant.

5. Answer : (c) Conidia

Explanation: The fungi Penicillium reproduces by vegetative, asexual reproduction as well as sexual reproduction. In asexual reproduction, the process takes place by the formation of spores known as the conidiospores. The conidiospores that produce conidia are then expelled.

6. Answer : (c) In some bryophytes

Explanation: Asexual reproduction in bryophytes takes place by fragmentation or by the formation of gemma cups. Gemmae are green, multicellular, and asexual buds that are borne on the thalli of the parent. They are enclosed inside gemma cups. These gemmae fall off from the plant body and germinate to give rise to a new plant.

7. Answer : (c) Onion

Explanation:  An onion is a plant that grows as a bulb underground and can be harvested and eaten. Onions are bulbs, like tulips or daffodils — most of the plant is hidden in the soil, with roots stretching down and stalks that grow upward and eventually bloom with small flowers.

8. Answer : (d) Grafting

Explanation: Scion or grafting of a plant is a way of eliminating the twig or possible bud from the plant.

9. Answer : (a) By bulbils

Explanation: Vegetative reproduction in Agave occurs through bulbils. Bulbils are the specialized buds vegetative or floral that modify into a swollen structure. It separates from the parent plant and on the approach of the favorable condition gives rise to the new plant.

10. Answer : (b) 50 years

Explanation: Most women experience menopause around age 50, though it can occur before that age. The usual age range is 45 to 55.

11. Answer :   (c) Corona radiata

Explanation: The outermost membranous cover of the ovum at ovulation is corona radiata. It is formed by follicular cells.

12. Answer : (a) Ectoderm

Explanation: Unlike the rest of the eye, which is derived mostly from the neural ectoderm, the lens is derived from the surface ectoderm. The first stage of lens differentiation takes place when the optic vesicle, which is formed from out pocketing in the neural ectoderm, comes in proximity to the surface ectoderm.

13. Answer : (a) Sucker

Explanation: Sucker is a mode of vegetative propagation. Each sucker has nodes with scale leaf and axillary bud. For example, mint has the sucker.

14. Answer : (b) Epimorphosis

Explanation: Epimorphosis is the replacement of a lost organ of the body by proliferating new cells from the surface of the wound or injured part.

15. Answer : (a) 28 days

Explanation: For menstruating women, an average menstrual cycle lasts 28 days. It starts with the first day of the last period and ends with the first day of the next menstrual period.

16. Answer : (a) Obliteration of blastocoel

Explanation: This internal movement is referred to as invagination. Hence, the process of gastrulation ends with blastocoel cavity obliteration and three layers of germ formation.

17. Answer : (a) Drones

Explanation: Since drones are developed without fertilization of egg, they are developed by parthenogenesis. queen and worker honey bees are developed by fertilization of egg.

18. Answer : (b) Incomplete

Explanation: Meroblastic cleavage refers to an incomplete type of division of eggs. In such a cleavage, the furrows divide the small amount of active cytoplasm of animal pole or periphery of egg and most of the yolky portion of vegetal pole or central area of the egg remains undivided.

19. Answer : (b) Embryo sac

Explanation: The female gametophyte, also referred to as the embryo sac or megagametophyte, develops within the ovule, which, in turn, is embedded within the ovary of the carpel. Among angiosperms, the female gametophyte has a variety of forms.

20.  Answer :(a) Formation of seeds without fusion of gamete

Explanation: An apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction that occurs via seeds, in which embryos develop without fertilization.”

21. Answer : (a) reproductive phase

Explanation: In animals, the juvenile phase is followed by the reproductive phase.

22. Answer : (c) algae

Explanation: External Fertilization occurs in the majority of algae. External fertilization takes place mostly in wet environments and needs both the male and the female to release their gametes into their surroundings (usually water).

23. Answer : (a) Cladophora

Explanation: Isogametes are seen in algae like Spirogyra, Chlamydomonas, and a few more species.

24.  Answer : (c) Elephant

Explanation: The 22-month gestation period of the African elephant is the longest among the land mammals.

25. Answer : (b) Seasonal breeders

Explanation: Many mammals, especially those living in natural wild conditions exhibit reproductive cycles only during favourable seasons in their reproductive phase and are therefore called seasonal breeders. 

Click here to practice  MCQ Question for Reproduction in Organisms Class 12  

Though chlorophyll is the major pigment responsible for trapping light, other thylakoid pigments like chlorophyll b, xanthophylls and carotenoids, which are called accessory pigments, also absorb light and transfer the energy to ‘chlorophyll a’.

Indeed, they not only enable a wider range of wavelength of incoming light to be utilized for photosynthesis but also protect ‘chlorophyll a’ from photo-oxidation. Reaction centre chlorophyll-protein complexes are capable of directly absorbing light and performing charge separation events without other chlorophyll pigments but the absorption crosssection is small.

The pigments in photosynthetic bacteria are located in the folds of cell membrane.

Since leaves require light to perform photosynthesis, the colour of a leaf kept in the dark changes from a darker to a lighter shade of green. Sometimes, it also turns yellow. The production of the chlorophyll pigment essential for photosynthesis is directly proportional to the amount of light available. In the absence of light, the production of ‘chlorophyll – a‘ molecules stops and they get broken slowly. This changes the colour of the leaf gradually to light green. During this process, the xanthophyll and cartenoid pigments become predominant, causing the leaf to become yellow. These pigments are more stable as light is not essential for their production. They are always present in plants.

If a plant is given only green light, no photosynthesis will occur. Green light is not absorbed by the photosynthetic pigments as it is reflected back as such.

Magnesium is the central element in chlorophyll.

Chlorophyll ′a'

Solving the Class 11 Biology MCQ Questions of Chemical Coordination and Integration with Answers can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chemical Coordination and integration with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams.

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chemical Coordination and integration with Answers free covering the entire syllabus. Refer to the MCQ Questions for Class 11 with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Practice MCQ Questions for class 11 Biology Chapter-Wise

1. Which of the following is an emergency hormone?

(a) epinephrine
(b) Androgen
(c) Cortisol
(d) FSH

2. In the body, both the blood sodium and potassium levels are regulated by _______.

(a) Pheromones
(b) Aldosterone
(c) Cortisol
(d) Androgens

3. Glucagon hormone is secreted by the.......

(a) Thyroid gland
(b) Adrenal gland
(c) Pituitary gland
(d) Pancreas

4. PTH is called a hypercalcemic hormone because it leads to the

(a) absorption of CaCO₃ from the digested food
(b) reabsorption of water from renal tubules
(c) increasing blood calcium levels
(d) maintenance ion balance in the blood

5. Corpus luteum secretes

(a) progesterone
(b) estrogen
(c) glucagon
(d) vasopressin

6. Diurnal rhythm of the body is maintained by

(a) melatonin
(b) isthmus
(c) PTH
(d) norepinephrine

7. Which hormone inhibits the release of growth hormone?

(a) Insulin
(b) Gonadotrophin
(c) Somatostatin
(d) Thymosin

8. Steroid hormones easily pass through the plasma membrane by simple diffusion because they

(a) Are water-soluble
(b) Are lipid-soluble
(c) Enter through pores
(d) Contain carbon and hydrogen

9. Parathormone regulates:

(a) Blood calcium level
(b) Calcium phosphate level
(c) Body temperature
(d) None of the above

10. Meibomian gland is associated with:

(a) Eyes
(b) Ears
(c) Reproductive organ
(d) Skin

11. The thyroid gland is homologous to which part of lower chordates:-

(a) Neural gland
(b) Pharyngeal gill pouch
(c) Nerve cord
(d) Endostyle

12. The ‘islets of Langerhans’ are found in

(a) Alimentary canal
(b) Stomach
(c) Liver
(d) Pancreas

13. Cochlea of the mammalian ear is concerned with:

(a) Balancing of body
(b) Hearing
(c) Pereception of atmospheric pressure
(d) Both (a) and (b)

14. Which of the following is an anvil-shaped ear ossicle:

(a) Incus
(b) Malleus
(c) Stapes
(d) Humerus

15. Deficiency of which of the following may cause bone deformation:-

(a) PTH
(b) Vitamin D
(c) STH
(d) Thyroxine

16. The fluid surrounding the membranous labyrinth of rabbit is called:

(a) Endolymph
(b) Perilymph
(c) Haemolymph
(d) Cerebrospinal fluid

17. Which one of the following is not a second messenger in hormone action?

(a) Calcium
(b) cAMP
(c) cGMP
(d) Sodium

18. Philips collip discovered which of the following hormones:

(a) Parathyroid hormone
(b) Thyroxine
(c) A.D.H.
(d) Oxytocin

19. How many semicircular canals are found in the internal ear of a rabbit:

(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) One

20. The technique used for the estimation of minute amounts of hormones and drugs is called

(a) radioimmunoassay
(b) electroencephalogram
(c) fractionation
(d) None of these

21. Testosterone is produced by

(a) leydig’s cells
(b) pituitary gland
(c) Both
(d) None of these

22. The phase of the menstrual cycle in humans that lasts for 7-8 days, is

(a) ovulatory phase
(b) menstruation
(c) luteal phase
(d) follicular phase

23. Estrogen and testosterone are steroid hormones, and most likely bind to

(a) cytoplasmic receptors
(b) G-protein coupled membrane receptors
(c) enzyme-linked membrane receptors
(d) membrane ion channels

24. Researchers have found increased levels of hormones from the ......... in the blood of students preparing for final exams. These hormones are produced in response to stress

(a) adrenal glands
(b) pineal gland
(c) thyroid gland
(d) posterior pituitary

25. Adrenaline directly affects 

(a) SA node
(b) \(\beta-\)cells of Langerhans
(c) dorsal root of spinal cord
(d) epithelial cells of stomach

Answer:

1. Answer : (a) epinephrine

Explanation: Adrenaline hormone is known as the Emergency Hormone or Epinephrine because it initiates a rapid reaction that helps the person think rapidly and respond to stress. It raises the rate of metabolism, dilating the blood vessels going into the heart and brain.

2.  Answer : (b) Aldosterone

Explanation:  Aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid hormone that is secreted by the adrenal cortex and regulates the balance of sodium and potassium in the body.

3.  Answer : (d) Pancreas

Explanation: Glucagon is a hormone that is involved in controlling blood sugar (glucose) levels. It is produced by the alpha cells, found in the islets of Langerhans, in the pancreas, from where it is released into the bloodstream.

4.  Answer : (c) increasing blood calcium levels

Explanation: PTH or parathyroid hormone is also called hypercalcemic hormone as it increase the calcium level in the blood.

5. Answer : (a) progesterone

Explanation: The corpus luteum is responsible for producing the hormone progesterone, which stimulates the uterus to thicken even more in preparation for the implantation of a fertilized egg. The hormone estrogen is also elevated during this time to prepare the uterus for implantation.

6.  Answer : (a) melatonin

Explanation: Melatonin, primarily released by the pineal gland, is a hormone that regulates the sleep-wake cycle. Melatonin is involved in controlling the circadian rhythms of physiological functions in animals, including sleep timing, control of blood pressure, seasonal reproduction, and many others.

7.  Answer : (c) Somatostatin

Explanation: Somatostatin from the hypothalamus inhibits the pituitary gland's secretion of growth hormone and thyroid-stimulating hormone. In addition, somatostatin is produced in the pancreas and inhibits the secretion of other pancreatic hormones such as insulin and glucagon.

8.  Answer : (b) Are lipid-soluble

Explanation: Steroid hormones all are made up of cholesterol which is a lipid derivative synthesized by the liver cells. These hormones are lipid-soluble which is why their molecules pass freely through the lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane.

9.  Answer : (a) Blood calcium level

Explanation: Parathyroid hormone regulates calcium levels in the blood, largely by increasing the levels when they are too low. It does this through its actions on the kidneys, bones, and intestine: Bones – parathyroid hormone stimulates the release of calcium from large calcium stores in the bones into the bloodstream.

10. Answer : (a) Eyes

Explanation: Meibomian glands are anatomically located in the tarsal plate of both upper and lower eyelids, as holocrine sebaceous glands that open directly on the eyelid margin and discharge their entire contents onto the lid margin.

11. Answer : (d) Endostyle

Explanation: The endostyle in larval lampreys (ammocoetes) metamorphoses into the thyroid gland in adults, and is regarded as being homologous to the thyroid gland in vertebrates due to its iodine-concentrating activity.

12. Answer : (d) Pancreas

Explanation: islets of Langerhans are islands of endocrine cells scattered throughout the pancreas.

13.  Answer : (b) Hearing

Explanation: The inner ear of mammals consists of the cochlea, which is involved with the sense of hearing, and the vestibule and three semicircular canals, which are involved with the sense of balance.

14.  Answer : (a) Incus

Explanation: The incus or anvil is a bone in the middle ear. The anvil-shaped small bone is one of three ossicles in the middle ear.

15.  Answer : (b) Vitamin D

Explanation: Vitamin D affects how calcium is deposited in the bones; thus it is considered essential for proper bone development and growth. Major symptoms of vitamin D deficiency rickets include bone deformities and bone pain, slow growth, fractures, and seizures.

16.  Answer : (a) Endolymph

Explanation: Endolymph is the fluid contained in the membranous labyrinth of the inner ear. The major cation in endolymph is potassium, with the values of sodium and potassium concentration in the endolymph being 0.91 mM and 154 mM, respectively. It is also called Scarpa's fluid, after Antonio Scarpa.

17.  Answer :(d) Sodium

Explanation: Sodium does not act as a second messenger for any hormone.  cGMP is also known as cyclic guanosine monophosphate. It acts as a second messenger by the mechanism of activation of protein kinases present within the cell.

18.  Answer : (a) Parathyroid hormone

Explanation: The hormones released by the parathyroid gland is called parathyroid hormones, Collips hormone, or parathormone (PTH). This hormone helps in maintaining blood calcium levels along with calcitonin. PTH is also called a hypercalcemic hormone that helps to increase blood calcium levels.

19.  Answer : (b) Three

Explanation: The three semicircular canals of the bony labyrinth are designated according to their position: superior, horizontal, and posterior.

20.  Answer : (a) radioimmunoassay

Explanation: Radioimmunoassay (RIA) is a laboratory method that measures, with relative accuracy, minute amounts of substances present in the body. Drugs, antigens, and hormones are some of the substances measured by radioimmunoassay.

21.  Answer : (a) leydig’s cells

Explanation: Leydig cells are interstitial cells located adjacent to the seminiferous tubules in the testes. The best-established function of Leydig cells is to produce the androgen, testosterone, under the pulsatile control of pituitary luteinizing hormone (LH).

22.  Answer : (d) follicular phase

Explanation: This phase is called follicular because it is when the follicles are developing thanks to FSH, as one reaches maturity, the others start to die off and this signals the release of luteinizing hormone.

23.  Answer : (a) cytoplasmic receptors

Explanation: Estrogen and testosterone are female and male sex hormones respectively. Chemically, these are steroid hormones (lipid-soluble) that easily pass through the cell membrane and bind to specific intracellular receptors in the cytoplasm.

24.  Answer : (a) adrenal glands

Explanation:  Adrenaline increases your heart rate, elevates your blood pressure, and boosts energy supplies. Cortisol, the primary stress hormone, increases sugars (glucose) in the bloodstream, enhances your brain's use of glucose, and increases the availability of substances that repair tissues.

25.  Answer : (a) SA node

Explanation:  Adrenaline prepares the body for emergency alarming reactions like fight and flight. it directly affects the SA node to increase the rate of heartbeat. It is responsible for the alarming reactions and also increases breathing rate and blood glucose level, blood pressure, peripheral circulation, etc.

Click here to practice Chemical Coordination and Integration MCQ Questions for Class 11

Oestrogen is the ovarian hormone secreted during the proliferation phase of menstrual cycle from the 6th day to 14th day of the cycle. On 14th day of the cycle, under the influence of uteinizing hormone, ovum is released from the graffian follicles. This process is known as ovulation.

Blue and red regions of the light spectrum are the most effective in photosynthesis. 

Hormones are released into the blood stream and circulated as chemical signals. These act specifically on certain organs or tissues called target organs or tissues. These speed up or slow down or alter the activity of target tissues or organs. Hence they are known as chemaical messengers.

(i) Light reaction depends upon the amount of solar energy trapped by the pigment molecule. 

(ii) Energy trapped by a single pigment molecule is not enough to start the initial reactions which may occur in light. 

(iii) A number of pigment molecules capture light over a large surface area, and later on pass it on to photocentre. 

(iv) The presence of a number of pigment molecules would provide protection to the chlorophyll molecule against photo-oxidation.

Carbon fixation takes place in stroma.

MCQ Questions are an important part of exams for class 11 Biology and whenever practiced appropriately can help you with getting better marks. CBSE Class 11 Biology MCQ Questions of Photosynthesis in Higher Plants with answers accessible in free here. The MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology with answers have been ready according to the most recent Syllabus, NCERT books proposed by CBSE.
If you practice these MCQ Questions you will be able to revise all the subtopics that are given beneath: –

• What do we Know?
• Early Experiments
• Where does Photosynthesis take place?
• How many Pigments are involved in Photosynthesis?
• What is Light Reaction?
• The Electron Transport
• Where are the ATP and NADPH Used?
• The C4 Pathway
• Photorespiration
• Factors affecting Photosynthesis

Practice Photosynthesis in Higher Plants Class 11 MCQ Questions, solve the questions and compare your answers with the detailed solutions.

Practice MCQ Questions for class 11 Biology Chapter-Wise

1. The primary carbon dioxide acceptor in C4 cycle is

(a) malic acid
(b) phosphoenol pyruvate
(c) rubisco
(d) aspartic acid

2. Translocation of sugar in flowering plants occurs in the form of

(a) glucose
(b) sucrose
(c) starch
(d) maltose

3. Where are thylakoids and grana located?

(a) Lysosomes
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Chloroplasts
(d) Golgi apparatus

4. Kranz anatomy is a feature of

(a) C3 plants
(b) CAM plants
(c) C4 plants
(d) All of these

5.  How many turns of Calvin cycle yield one molecule of glucose?

(a) Eight
(b) Two
(c) Six
(d) Four

6. In which of the following process, the light energy is converted into chemical energy

(a) Digestive action
(b) Respiration
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) Fermentation

7. Chlorophyll in chloroplasts is located in

(a) Grana
(b) Pyrenoid
(c) Stroma
(d) Both grana and stroma

8. ADP  +  iP  =  ATP in grana is called :–

(a) Phosphorylation
(b) Oxidative phosphorylation
(c) Photophosphorylation
(d) Photolysis

9. Which one occurs both during cyclic and noncyclic modes of photophosphorylation?

(a) Involvement of both PS I and PS II
(b) Formation of ATP
(c) Release of \(O_2\)
(d) Formation of NADPH

10. The chemiosmotic coupling hypothesis of oxidative phosphorylation proposes that adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is formed because

(a) a proton gradient forms across the inner mitochondrial membrane. 
(b) There is a change in the permeability of the inner mitochondrial membrane towards adenosine diphosphate (ADP).
(c) high energy bonds are formed in mitochondrial proteins
(d) ADP is pumped out of the matrix into the intermembrane space.

11. The first carbon dioxide fixation product of C4 plant is 

(a) Oxaloacetic acid
(b) ribulose biphosphate
(c) phosphoenol pyruvate
(d) phosphoglyceric acid

12. In blue-green algae, photosystem- II contains important pigments concerned with the photolysis of water. It is a

(a) phycocyanin
(b) cytochrome-c
(c) chlorophyll -b
(d) \(\beta-\)carotene

13. PS-II occurs only in

(a) stroma
(b) granal thylakoids
(c) stromal lamella
(d) matrix

14. The first stable product of the Calvin cycle is 

(a) 3-phosphoglycerate
(b) 1, 3 biphosphoglycerate
(c) glyceraldehyde - 3 phosphate
(d) ribulose - 5- phosphate

15. Quantasomes are present in

(a) chloroplast
(b) golgi body
(c) lysosome
(d) None of these

16. The organelles which take part in photo-respiration are

(a) mitochondria, chloroplast, peroxisome
(b) mitochondria, lysosomes, peroxisome
(c) chloroplast, mitochondria, lysosome
(d) chloroplast, mitochondria, nucleus

17. Photosynthetically active radiation is represented by the range of wavelength of

(a) 400 - 700 nm
(b) 400 - 950 nm
(c) 340 - 450 nm
(d) 500 - 600 nm

18.The first carbon dioxide acceptor in C4 plants is

(a) Phosphoenol-pyruvate
(b) Ribulose 1, 5-diphosphate
(c) Oxalo-acetic acid
(d) None of these

19. In the leaves of C4 plants, malic acid formation during \(CO_2\) fixation occurs in the cells of

(a) mesophyll
(b) phloem
(c) epidermis
(d) bundle sheath

20.Which pigment is water-soluble?

(a) Anthocyanin
(b) Chlorophyll
(c) Carotene
(d) Xanthophyll

21. Formation of ATP in photosynthesis and respiration is an oxidation process which utilizes the energy from

(a) cytochromes
(b) ferredoxin
(c) electrons
(d) carbon dioxide 

22. Which of the following absorb light energy for photosynthesis? 

(a) Chlorophyll
(b) Water molecule
(c) \(O_2\)
(d) RuBP

23. During the synthesis of a glucose molecule, ATP and NADPH consumed are respectively

(a) 12 and 8
(b) 18 and 12
(c) 15 and 12
(d) 30 and 20

24. As compared to a C3-plant, how many additional molecules of ATP are needed for net production of one molecule of hexose sugar by C4-plants 

(a) 2 
(b) 6
(c) 12
(d) zero

25. Which fractions of the visible spectrum of solar radiations are primarily absorbed by carotenoids of the higher plants? 

(a) Violet and blue
(b) Blue and green
(c) Green and red
(d) Red and violet

Answer:

 1. Answer: (b) phosphoenol pyruvate

Explanation: In the C4 cycle, phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) which is a three-carbon molecule act as a primary acceptor of carbon dioxide and is present in the mesophyll cells.

2. Answer: (b) sucrose

Explanation: The sugars, synthesized in leaves (as a result of photosynthesis) are translocated downwards, upwards, and laterally to all the other organs including storage organs mainly through the phloem. These sugars are translocated in the form of sucrose.

3. Answer: (c) Chloroplasts

Explanation: The chloroplast contains chlorophyll within its thylakoids, which absorb light energy and gives chloroplasts its green color. Stacks of thylakoids are known as grana, which exist in the open space of the chloroplast known as the stroma.

4. Answer: (c) C4 plants

Explanation: Kranz anatomy is a unique structure observed in C4 plants. In these plants, the mesophyll cells cluster around the bundle-sheath cell in a wreath formation (Kranz means 'wreath or ring). Also, the number of chloroplasts observed in bundle sheath cells is more than that in the mesophyll cell.

5. Answer: (c) Six

Explanation: Since one molecule of carbon is fixed in one tum of the Calvin cycle. So, six turns of the cycle are required to fix the glucose molecule containing 6 carbon atoms.

6. Answer: (c) Photosynthesis

Explanation: Photosynthesis is the process by which organisms that contain the pigment chlorophyll convert light energy into chemical energy which can be stored in the molecular bonds of organic molecules (e.g., sugars).

7. Answer: (a) Grana

Explanation: In plants, chloroplasts occur in all green tissues, though they are concentrated particularly in the parenchyma cells of the leaf mesophyll. Chloroplasts circulate within plant cells. The green coloration comes from chlorophyll concentrated in the grana of chloroplasts.

8. Answer: (c) Photophosphorylation

Explanation: This process occurs in the grana of the chloroplast during the light reaction. Thus, based on the above information we can conclude that ADP + Pi = ATP in grana is called Photophosphorylation.

9. Answer: (b) Formation of ATP

Explanation:  During the cyclic and noncyclic modes of photophosphorylation, the formation of ATP takes place. The non-cyclic photo-phosphorylation involves PS-I as well as PS-II, while the cyclic photophosphorylation involves PS-1 only.

10. Answer: (a) a proton gradient forms across the inner mitochondrial membrane. 

Explanation: Chemiosmotic phosphorylation is the third pathway that produces ATP from inorganic phosphate and an ADP molecule. This process is a part of oxidative phosphorylation.

11. Answer: (a) Oxaloacetic acid

Explanation: The first product of \(CO_2\) fixation is a C4 organic acid, oxaloacetate, formed by the carboxylation of phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) by PEP carboxylase. The oxaloacetate is converted to other C4 acids (malate or aspartate) and transferred to the bundle sheath.

12. Answer: (a) phycocyanin

Explanation: In blue-green algae, photosystem-II contains important pigments concerned with the photolysis of water. It is phycocyanin or phycoerythrin.

13. Answer: (b) granal thylakoids

Explanation: Photosystem II mostly occurs in the appressed regions of granal thylakoids.

14. Answer: (a) 3-phosphoglycerate

Explanation: The first stable product of the Calvin cycle is 3-PGA (3-phosphoglyceric acid). It is a 3 carbon compound so the Calvin cycle is also called the C3 cycle.

15. Answer: (a) chloroplast

Explanation: Quantasomes are particles found in the thylakoid membrane of chloroplasts in which photosynthesis takes place. They are embedded in a paracrystalline array on the surface of thylakoid discs in chloroplasts. They are composed of lipids and proteins that include various photosynthetic pigments and redox carriers.

16.Answer: (a) mitochondria, chloroplast, peroxisome

Explanation: Three cellular organelles involved in photorespiration are the chloroplast, peroxisome, and mitochondria.

17. Answer: (a) 400 - 700 nm

Explanation: Photosynthetically Active Radiation (PAR) is the light wavelength range that is best fit for photosynthesis to occur. Photosynthesis is a process that requires light energy and optimally occurs in the 400 to 700 nanometer (nm) range. This range is also known as visible light.

18.Answer: (a) Phosphoenol-pyruvate

Explanation: In C4-plants, phosphoenol-pyruvate is the first acceptor of \(CO_2\) while ribulose bi-phosphate is the second acceptor. Oxalo acetic acid (OAA) is the first product of C4 cycle.

19. Answer: (a) mesophyll

Explanation: In this type of plant, the initial fixation of \(CO_2\) occur in mesophyll cell. The primary acceptor (phosphoenolpyruvate) combines with \(CO_2\) to form oxaloacetic acid which later reduced to malic acid. Malic acid is then translocated to bundle sheath cell for further decarboxylation.

20. Answer: (a) Anthocyanin

Explanation: Anthocyanins are present in vacuoles of the plant cells and are water-soluble pigments. These pigment's molecules change color depending on the pH of their environment, they can be red, purple, blue, or black.

21. Answer: (c) electrons

Explanation: Formation of ATP in photosynthesis and respiration is an oxidation process which utilities the energy from electrons.

22. Answer: (a) Chlorophyll

Explanation: Chlorophyll, the primary pigment used in photosynthesis, reflects green light and absorbs red and blue light most strongly. In plants, photosynthesis takes place in chloroplasts, which contain chlorophyll.

23. Answer: (b) 18 and 12

Explanation: The requirement of ATP and NADPH is respectively. For the synthesis of a molecule of glucose, 18 ATP, 12 NADPH and \(6CO_2\) are required.

24. Answer: (c) 12

Explanation: 18 ATP molecules are required by C3-plants for the synthesis of one molecule of hexose sugar while 30 ATP molecules are needed by the C4 -plants for the same. Thus C4 -plants have a need of 12 ATP molecules extra than C3 -plants for the synthesis of one molecule of hexose sugar.

25. Answer: (a) Violet and blue

Explanation: Carotenoids of higher plants are fat soluble compound that includes carotenes and xanthophylls. Most of them absorb light of voilet and blue range. Green light is absorbed in less amounts.

Click here to practice Photosynthesis in Higher Plants MCQ Questions for Class 11

ATP, NADPH₂ and O₂.

Incomplete breakdown of organic food to liberate energy in the absence of oxygen.

Increase in incident light beyond a point causes the breakdown of chlorophyll.

Complete oxidation of organic food in presence of oxygen thereby producing CO₂, water and energy.

(a) Absorption of light and transfer of energy to chlorophyll ‘a’. 

(b) Protect chlorophyll ‘a’ from photo oxidation.

(a) Two types cells : mesophyll and bundle sheath. 

(b) RuBP 

(c) OOA (oxaloacetic acid) 

(d) 20ºC - 25ºC

(a) Photolysis of H₂O and photophosphorylation occurs in both C₃ and C₄ plants. 

(b) In both, dark reaction occurs in stroma. 

(c) Calvin cycle results in the formation of starch in both the plants. 

(d) During dark reaction both types of plants undergo the phases of carboxylation and regeneration.

(i) ‘B’ 

(ii) CO₂ and temperature 

(iii) ‘C’ represents to constant rate of photosynthesis, ‘D’ is the light saturation intensity at which rate of photosynthesis is maximum.

Because they require more energy (30 ATPs) in synthesizing one glucose molecule as compared to C₃ - 18 ATPs.

The curve showing the amount of differet wavelengths of light absorbed by a substance is called absorption spectrum. It is studied help of spectrophotometer.

Photosynthesis occurs in two steps :

i. Light reaction or photochemical phase 

ii. Dark reaction or biosynthetic phase.

Graph plotted between rate of photosynthesis (measured by O₂ released) and different wavelength of visible spectrum is called as action spectrum.

Correct answer is (b) Rapid

Correct answer is (c) steady

RuBisCO is the most abundant enzymes in the world.

Depending upon the mode of origin, meristems are classified into three types: 

(i) Promeristem: (a) Promeristems are also called primordial meristems or embryonic meristems. 

(b) These are localized groups of meristematic cells in germinating embryos or young seedlings. 

(c) Promeristems give rise to primary meristems where formation of new organs are initiated. 

(ii) Primary meristems: (a) These are the meristems, which are derived from the promeristems and retain the capacity to divide throughout the life of the plant. 

(b) They are represented by apical meristem, intercalary meristem and intrafascicular cambium. 

(c) The primary meristems form different primary permanent tissues. 

(d) The intrafascicular cambium, produces secondary vascular tissues and medullary rays. 

(iii) Secondary meristems: (a) These are the meristem, which are formed from permanent tissues by the process of differentiation. 

(b) They are represented by interfascicular cambium, vascular cambium, cork cambium or phellogen, wound cambium and accessory cambium. 

(c) They all are lateral in position and give rise to secondary permanent tissues that result in radial growth.

The significance of secondary growth are:

 (i) The secondary growth adds girth to the plant. It provides support by increasing width of the aerial growth. 

(ii) It produces a corky bark around the tree trunk that protects the interior parts from abrasion, heat cold and infection. 

(iii) It adds new conducting tissues for replacing old non-functioning ones as well as for meeting increased demand for long distance transport of sap and organic nutrients.

After a hard day of work, the apple farmer is completely fatigued but is still unable to escape the mental act of picking apples. He still sees the apples in front of him. He admits that he himself had desired and dreamt of the great harvest, but is now overwhelmed by the number and leaves a few on the branches without picking.

Locomotion occurs when body changes its position, however all movements may not result in locomotion. Thus, all locomotions are movements but all movements are not locomotion.

A) the ones that fall to the ground

A) How does a person deal with many hopes, wishes and experiences?

B) a dream the speaker has after picking apples all day