Explore topic-wise InterviewSolutions in Current Affairs.

This section includes 7 InterviewSolutions, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Current Affairs knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

True / False :1. The innermost layer of the earth is called core.2. The combined form of natural minerals is called rocks.3. Sial made up of Silica and Alumina.4. Sulphur, Gypsum are non-metallic minerals.5. Coal, Petrol, Natural gas etc. are considered power resources.

Answer»

1. True

2. True

3. False

4. True

5. True

2.

How can we avoid soil erosion?

Answer»
  • By planting more and more trees.
  • By adopting developed means of agriculture.
  • By decreasing the grazing area of cattle.
3.

What is a bad land topography?

Answer»

A highly dissected land surface is known as bad larid. In sloping areas, gully erosion results in soil erosion. These gullies develop a ravine land a bad land topography. This topography consists of ridges, earth pillars, ravines, escarpments, etc. This topography is found in Chambal Valley of Madhya Pradesh in India.

4.

Write down about the Mantle part of the Earth.

Answer»

Below the earth’s crust is Mantle. Its normal thickness is 2900 kms deep down to earth’s interior.

5.

How many types of Rocks are found on the earth?

Answer»

Igneous rocks, Sedimentary rocks, Metamorphic rocks.

6.

Write about Metamorphic rocks, give specific example of these rocks.

Answer»

Metamorphic Rocks: These rocks are formed by ‘metamorphism’ or change of form of igneous and sedimentary rocks. The change takes place in hardness, colour, texture and composition of minerals in rocks deep inside the earth due to pressure and temperature. Thus original igneous rock like mica may be changed to schist, granite to gneiss and sedimentary rocks like limestone to marble, sandstone to quartzite and peat to coal.

Characteristics:

  • They are very hard.
  • They contain useful materials and minerals like building materials, marbles, gems, rubies and sapphires. Taj Mahal is made of white marble.
7.

Why are the forests so important in Indian culture?

Answer»

Forests are considered as the place of penance in Indian culture, moreover, they are excellent places for meditation and gaining knowledge. So, they have an important place in Indian culture.

8.

Mention any three direct benefits derived from the forests.

Answer»

The direct benefits derived from forests are attainment of fuel wood, fodder for animals and different types of herbs and medicines.

9.

What are the main causes of deforestation? Or Why does deforestation take place in India?

Answer»

Deforestation takes place in India for obtaining agricultural land, residential land and wood.

10.

What are Individual Forests?

Answer»

The forests on which an individual person or firm has full right and control are called Individual Forests.

11.

Which of the following is not a species of mountain forest? (a) Eugenia (b) Sundari(c) Michelia (d) Sanovar

Answer»

Correct Answer is: (c) Michelia

12.

Which types of forests are found in muddy and marshy areas? (a) Desert forest (b) Mountain forest (c) Tidal forest (d) Dry forest

Answer»

Correct Answer is: (c) Tidal forest

13.

Where are the Sundari Forests found in India?

Answer»

In India, the Sundari Forests are found in the deltas of Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers.

14.

What is meant by Unclassified Forests?

Answer»

The forests where there is no prohibition on wood-cutting and grazing of animals are called Unclassified Forests.

15.

Describe the geographical conditions necessary for evergreen forests.

Answer»

The average of annual rainfall should be more than 200 cm and the annual average temperature should be 24°C. These are the geographical conditions necessary for evergreen forests.

16.

Name the vegetation that is found in evergreen forests.

Answer»

The vegetation that is found in evergreen forests includes rubber, mahogany, iron – wood, ebony, wild mango, palm, vines etc.

17.

What is meant by Sundari Forests?

Answer»

The Sundari trees are found in the tidal forests in India. Due to primacy of these trees, the tidal forests are also known as Sundari Forests in India.

18.

Describe the characteristics of Dry Forests.

Answer»

The characteristics of dry forests are: 

1. These forests are found in the regions where there is 50 – 100 cm of annual rainfall.

2. The roots of these trees are long. 

3. Due to lack of rainfall, the height of trees in this forest usually is found to be from 6 to 9 meters. 

4. These forests have local importance.

19.

Which of the following is not included in desert forests? (a) Khejri tree (b) Date tree (c) Khair tree (d) Ebony

Answer»

Correct Answer is: (d) Ebony

20.

Where are Dry Forests found?

Answer»

Dry Forests are found in the regions where there is an average annual rainfall is between 50 cm to 100 cm. These types of forests are found mainly in south – western Punjab, Haryana, eastern Rajasthan and south – western Uttar Pradesh in India.

21.

Which type of vegetation is found in Desert Forests?

Answer»

Hawthorn, Ram bans, Khejara, Khair and date tree type thorny vegetation is found in desert forests.

22.

What is meant by Jet – stream?

Answer»

Jet stream is a narrow variable band of high level air circulation currents encircling the globe several miles above the earth.

23.

Which one is hydrophytic plant? (A) Trapa (B) Opuntia (C) Dalbergia (D) Acacia 

Answer»

Correct Answer is: (A) Trapa 

Water lilies, sedges, crow foots are other important water plants. Trapa is one of the hydrophytic plant (hydrophytic plant meaning - plants which live in water and adjust their surrounding).

24.

Write true or false for the following statements: Calcium oxide is also called lime quicklime.

Answer»

True

Calcium oxide (CaO) is also called quicklime. Quick lime is formed when calcium carbonate (limestone) is heated. This is also an example of decomposition reaction. 

Hence, the give statement is true.

25.

Name one plant hormone which:(a) Retards growth burning extremely dry season?(b) Is present in greater concentration in fruits and seeds?

Answer»

(a) Abscisic acid is the hormone in the plants that stop the growth during extremely dry season.

(b) Cytokinins are present in greater concentration in fruits and seeds.

26.

Name any four physical theories of Ascent Of Sap.

Answer»

Physical theories of Ascent of Sap.

  • Atmospheric pressure theory
  • Imbibitional theory
  • Capillarity
  • Root pressure theory. 
27.

What happens chemically when quicklime is added to water filled in a bucket ?

Answer»

When quicklime is added to water, it forms slaked lime along with evolution of heat. There will be a rise in temperature of the bucket.

28.

Fertilization outside the body is called (A) In vitro (B) In vivo (C) Both a and b (D) None of these

Answer»

Correct Answer is: (A) In vitro 

• In Vitro Fertilization (IVF) for pregnancy to occur, an egg must be fertilized by a sperm. When fertilization happens inside the body, it is called in vivo fertilization. 

• When fertilization happens outside of the body, it is called in vitro fertilization, or IVF. 

29.

A force of 72 dyne is inclined to the horizontal at an angle of 60°. Find the acceleration in a mass of 9 g, which moves in a horizontal direction.

Answer»

Component of force along horizontal,

Fx = F cos 60°

= 72 x \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 36 dyne

Using, Fx = max

we get, ax\(\frac{F_x}{m} = \frac{36}{9}\)

= 4 cms-2

30.

What is a sex chromosome?

Answer»

The chromosomes which are associated with sex determination are called sex chromosomes.

31.

How many chromosomes are present in a sperm and an ovum?

Answer» Sperm and ovum have 23 chromosomes each.
32.

The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid-carrying current(a) is zero.(b) decreases as we move towards its end.(c) increases as we move towards its end.(d) is the same at all points.

Answer»

(d) is the same at all points.

33.

Write the names of two types of chromosomes found in an organism.

Answer» Autosomes and sex chromosomes.
34.

In humans, the gene for black hair colour is B and gene for brown hair colour is b. What will be the hair colour of person having the genetic constitution?(a) BB (b) bb(c) Bb

Answer» (a) Black hair
(b) Brown hair
(c) Black hair (Hybrid)
35.

What are fossils ? How are they formed ? List two methods of determining the age of fossils. Explain in brief the importance of fossils in deciding the evolutionary relationships.

Answer»

(i) Fossils : The remains/impression of dead / decayed plants / animals.

(ii) Formation of fossils: Formed when dead organisms are compressed under high pressure deep under the soil.

(iii) Determination of age of fossil-Two methods :

(i) Relative method, 

(ii) Carbon dating method

(iv) The presence of fossilized remains of the organisms is the evidence of the existence of the organisms millions of years ago, out of which some have become extinct.

(v) Fossil also helps in the determination of the connecting links between various groups and their origin from the primitive ones.

36.

Define the term gene.

Answer»

The segment of DNA which is functional and is made of nucleic acids and protein is called gene.

37.

Which of the following property of a proton can change while it moves freely in a magnetic field? (There may be more than one correct answer.)(a) mass(b) speed(c) velocity(d) momentum

Answer»

(c) velocity
(d) momentum.

38.

Why do all the gametes formed in human females have X chromosome?..

Answer»

Human females have two X chromosomes called sex chromosomes. During meiosis at the time of gamete formation, one X chromosome enters each gamete. Hence all the gametes possess an X chromosome.

39.

What are the causes of variations?

Answer»

Following are the causes of variations:
(i) Dual percentage: Offsprings inherit some features from mother and some from father, hence no offspring will exactly resemble to either of the parent or each other.
(ii) Mutation in gene or chromosomal pattern also causes variations.

40.

Give the pair of contrasting traits of the following characters in pea plant and mention which is dominant and recessive(i) yellow seed(ii) round seed

Answer» (i) yellow- dominant
    green- recessive
(ii) round- dominant
     wrinkled- recessive
41.

What is the contribution of Mendel to genetics?

Answer»

Mendel observed the occurrence of contrasting characters of garden pea in various generations. On this basis, he interpreted that these contrasting characters are controlled by factors. He considered each and every character as a unit, which is controlled by a 'factor'. Factors are carriers of hereditary information. Now factors are known as genes.

42.

Which Chinese Ruler believed that-people are basically undisciplined?

Answer»

Shih Hu WangTi.

43.

How the trends of the electrode potentials vary across the first series of transition elements?

Answer»

STANDARD POTENTIAL (normal potential), the value of the electrode potential measured under standard conditions relative to the selected reference electrode (standard electrode). The electronic potential in a number of metals will decrease.

44.

What do you mean by electrode potential and how the trends of the electrode potentials vary across the first series of the transition metals ?

Answer»

STANDARD POTENTIAL (normal potential), the value of the electrode potential measured under standard conditions relative to the selected reference electrode (standard electrode). The electronic potential in a number of metals will decrease.

45.

How can the minimum muscular strength for children be assessed?

Answer»

Kraus-Weber Test for muscular strength: 

Test 1: Straight legs sit-ups 

Purpose: To measure strength of the abdominal and psoas muscles.

Procedure: Lie down in supine position, fingers interlocked behind neck, legs straight. The partner holds the feet of the subject. After command subject comes up to sitting position. 

Scoring: If without help, subject reaches to sitting position, 10 marks are awarded and if the subject is not able to lift shoulders zero marks are awarded. 

Test 2: Bent knee sit-ups 

Purpose: To measure strength of the abdominal muscles. 

Procedure: From supine position, the subject will keep the knees bent, fingers interlocked behind the neck. Roll up to sitting position, partner is holding the feet. 

Scoring: 

(a) It not able to lift shoulders, zero marks. 

(b) If reaches sitting position, 10 marks. 

(c) If there is distance from sitting position, it is marked between 0-10 marks. 

Test 3: Leg raise (Supine position) 

Purpose: To measure strength of the psoas and lower back. 

Procedure: Lie down in supine position on table, hands behinds the neck. Now lift the legs to 10 inches above the table and hold for 10 seconds. 

Scoring: Holding legs for 10 seconds scores 10 points. If held for 5 seconds then 5 points and so on. 

Test 4: Leg raise (Proline position) 

Purpose:To measure strength of upper back. 

Procedure: Lie on prone position on table, hands to be kept under chin. A pillow is kept under abdomen. The partner presses the back and trunk of the subject. The subject is advised to lift legs to 10 inches above the table and hold for 10 seconds. 

Scoring: Holding the legs for 10 seconds scores 10 points, if held for 5 seconds then 5 points and so on. 

Test 5: Lifting upper body (prone position) 

Purpose: To measure strength of lower back. 

Procedure: Lie on proline position, hands behind the neck and a pillow is kept under abdomen. The partner presses the legs and hip of subject. Now lift upper body to 10 inches above the table and hold for 10 seconds. 

Scoring: Holding the upper body for 10 seconds scores 10 points. Anything less than 10 seconds is scored accordingly. 

Test 6: Toe touch from standing position 

Purpose: To measure the strength of back and hamstring. Procedure: Stand erect with bare feet. Now slowly touch the hands to feet and stay there for 3 seconds. 

Scoring: Full 10 marks are given for complete touch (3 seconds). If subject is unable to touch by 2 inches B marks are awarded. The more the distance, the less the marks.

46.

Identify the gas evolved when:A few crystals of KNO3 are heated in a hard glass test tube. 

Answer»

 A few crystals of KNO3 are heated in a hard glass test tube Oxygen gas.

47.

Identify the gas evolved when: Sulphur is treated with concentrated nitric acid.

Answer»

 Nitrogen dioxide gas.

48.

Differentiate between a soap and a detergent.

Answer»
SoapDetergent
Sodium or potassium salts of long chain carboxylic acids (fatty acids).Ammounium or sulphonate salts of long chain carboxylic acids.
Cleansing action is due to the formation of micellesCleansing action is due to the formation of micelles
Forms insoluble precipitates called scum after washing with water.Does not from scum with water.
Uses: toilet soaps, washing soapsUses: shampoo, products for cleaning clothes

49.

Give difference between soap and detergent.

Answer»
SoapDetergent
1. Soaps are the sodium salts of the long chain carboxylic acids.  Detergents are generally ammonium or sulphonate salts of long chains carboxylic acid
2. Soaps are not suitable for washing with hard water as it forms insoluble scum.Detergents do not form insoluble scum with hard water.
3. Soaps are prepared from fats or vegetable oils.Detergents are not prepared from fats or vegetable oils.
4. BiodegradableNon-biodegradable.

50.

Differentiate between a soap and a detergent.

Answer»
SoapDetergent
Sodium or potassium salts of long chain carboxylic acids (fatty acids).Ammonium or sulphonate salts of lang chain carboxylic acids.
Cleansing action is due to the formation of micellesCleansing action is due to the formation of micelles
Forms insoluble precipitates called scum after washing with water.Does not form scum with water.
Uses: toilet soaps, washing soapsUses: shampoo, products for cleaning clothes