100525 + Interview Questions in GENERAL QA IN GENERAL AWARENESS

1.	The pH A. Of arterial blood normally ranges from 7.2 to 7.6. B. Units express [H+] in moles/litre. C. Of blood is directly proportional to the PCO2. D. Of blood is directly proportional to [HCO3- ]. E. Of urine is usually less than 7.
Answer» A. False The range is normally between 7.35 and 7.45. B. False They express it as the negative logarithm of the [H⁺] in moles/litre. C. False PCO₂ raises [H⁺] and hence lowers pH. D. True [HCO₃^- ] lowers [H⁺] by buffering and hence raises pH. E. True The normal diet leaves acidic, rather than alkaline, residues.

1.

The pH A. Of arterial blood normally ranges from 7.2 to 7.6. B. Units express [H+] in moles/litre. C. Of blood is directly proportional to the PCO2. D. Of blood is directly proportional to [HCO3- ]. E. Of urine is usually less than 7.

Answer»

A. False The range is normally between 7.35 and 7.45.

B. False They express it as the negative logarithm of the [H⁺] in moles/litre.

C. False PCO₂ raises [H⁺] and hence lowers pH.

D. True [HCO₃^- ] lowers [H⁺] by buffering and hence raises pH.

E. True The normal diet leaves acidic, rather than alkaline, residues.

Discussion

2.	Antigens A. Are usually proteins or polypeptide molecules. B. Can only be recognized by immune system cells previously exposed to that antigen. C. Are normally absorbed from the gut via lymphatics and carried to mesenteric lymph nodes. D. Induce a smaller immune response when protein synthesis is suppressed. E. Are taken up by antigen-presenting macrophages which activate the immune system.
Answer» A. True Large carbohydrate molecules may also be antigenic. B. False The ability to recognize foreign antigens is innate and does not depend on previous exposure to them. C. False Antigens, being proteins or carbohydrates, are not normally absorbed; they are digested in the gut. D. True Antibodies are proteins synthesized by ribosomes in activated lymphocytes. E. True Antigens can also act directly on receptors on lymphocyte membranes.

2.

Antigens A. Are usually proteins or polypeptide molecules. B. Can only be recognized by immune system cells previously exposed to that antigen. C. Are normally absorbed from the gut via lymphatics and carried to mesenteric lymph nodes. D. Induce a smaller immune response when protein synthesis is suppressed. E. Are taken up by antigen-presenting macrophages which activate the immune system.

Answer»

A. True Large carbohydrate molecules may also be antigenic.

B. False The ability to recognize foreign antigens is innate and does not depend on previous exposure to them.

C. False Antigens, being proteins or carbohydrates, are not normally absorbed; they are digested in the gut.

D. True Antibodies are proteins synthesized by ribosomes in activated lymphocytes.

E. True Antigens can also act directly on receptors on lymphocyte membranes.

Discussion

3.	Cerebrospinal fluid A. Is an ultrafiltrate of plasma. B. Is the main source of the brain’s nutrition. C. Has the same pH as arterial blood. D. Has a higher glucose concentration than has plasma. E. Has a higher calcium concentration than has plasma.
Answer» A. False It is secreted actively by the choroid plexuses. B. False Brain nutrition is delivered mainly by cerebral blood flow. C. False It is around 7.3 compared with 7.4 in blood. D. False It is about two-thirds that of plasma. E. False About half; protein-bound calcium is negligible in CSF.

3.

Cerebrospinal fluid A. Is an ultrafiltrate of plasma. B. Is the main source of the brain’s nutrition. C. Has the same pH as arterial blood. D. Has a higher glucose concentration than has plasma. E. Has a higher calcium concentration than has plasma.

Answer»

A. False It is secreted actively by the choroid plexuses.

B. False Brain nutrition is delivered mainly by cerebral blood flow.

C. False It is around 7.3 compared with 7.4 in blood.

D. False It is about two-thirds that of plasma.

E. False About half; protein-bound calcium is negligible in CSF.

Discussion

4.	Restoration of the blood volume after haemorrhage is aided by A. Contraction of venous reservoirs. B. A fall in capillary pressure in certain vascular beds. C. Arteriolar vasoconstriction. D. Mobilization of intracellular fluid into the circulation. E. An increase in the osmotic pressure of the plasma proteins.
Answer» A. False This redistributes but does not increase blood volume. B. True This favours absorption of tissue fluid into the circulation. C. True This leads to the fall in downstream capillary pressure. D. False Haemorrhage does not increase the osmolality of extracellular fluid. E. False Colloid osmotic pressure falls as tissue fluid is drawn into the circulation.

4.

Restoration of the blood volume after haemorrhage is aided by A. Contraction of venous reservoirs. B. A fall in capillary pressure in certain vascular beds. C. Arteriolar vasoconstriction. D. Mobilization of intracellular fluid into the circulation. E. An increase in the osmotic pressure of the plasma proteins.

Answer»

A. False This redistributes but does not increase blood volume.

B. True This favours absorption of tissue fluid into the circulation.

C. True This leads to the fall in downstream capillary pressure.

D. False Haemorrhage does not increase the osmolality of extracellular fluid.

E. False Colloid osmotic pressure falls as tissue fluid is drawn into the circulation.

Discussion

5.	For each blood transfusion problem A–E, select the most appropriate option from the following list. 1. ABO incompatibility. 2. Rhesus incompatibility. 3. Major incompatibility. 4. Minor incompatibility. 5. Multiple repeated transfusions. 6. Massive blood transfusion. 7. Use of stored blood. 8. Use of fresh blood.A. A patient has been given three units of blood during a surgical operation. Just after the operation the patient is at risk of inadequate tissue oxygenation despite satisfactory arterial blood pressure, hemoglobin and arterial blood oxygen saturation levels. B. A patient has been given two units of blood on the day before a planned surgical operation. Towards the end of the transfusion the patient was noted to have mild fever, and the next morning slight jaundice was noted in the conjunctivae. C. A patient admitted with vomiting of blood shows signs of circulatory failure and is given a unit of blood quite rapidly. As the transfusion is nearly completed it is discovered that there has been confusion between two patients with exactly the same first and second names and the patient with the transfusion appears much more unwell than at the start of the transfusion. In fact the group B patient was given group A blood. D. During emergency surgery for a dissected aortic aneurysm, a condition notorious for severe bleeding during operation, a patient is transfused with 20 units of blood. Despite restoration of a normal blood volume this patient is at risk of hypothermia, tissue hypoxia and coagulation problems. E. A patient with failure of bone marrow function causing aplastic anaemia is admitted for transfusion as the haemoglobin level has fallen to an unacceptable level. The blood bank report difficulty in finding suitable red cells due to problems with some of the ‘minor’ blood groups, M and Kell.
Answer» A. Option 7 Use of stored blood. This blood has the characteristic property of stored blood – a low level of 2:3-DPG. Hence the blood oxygen dissociation curve is shifted to the left, and the blood does not give up adequate oxygen at tissue oxygen tensions. B. Option 4 Minor incompatibility. There has been a mild antibody rejection of the donor red cells. A relatively small number of these have been broken down (lysed) to release bilirubin which causes the jaundice. The immune response also releases products, including interleukin-1, which cause the fever. C. Option 3 Major incompatibility. This type of mistake carries a high risk of death because the recipient’s naturally occurring anti-A antibody (agglutinin) rapidly destroys the transfused group A red cells, releasing huge amounts of deadly toxins. D. Option 6 Massive blood transfusion. A massive blood transfusion is defined as one where the volume of blood transfused equals or exceeds the patient’s original blood volume. Stored blood carries the problem mentioned in (A) but because large volumes of blood must be given very rapidly there is not time to heat them to body temperature from their initial low temperature, so the patient’s core temperature drops (hypothermia). This compounds the shift in the blood oxygen dissociation curve and also slows the coagulation reactions. E. Option 5 Multiple repeated transfusions. Such patients require regular blood transfusions on repeated occasions, so their immune system builds up antibodies to minor blood group antigens such as M, N, Kell and Duffy.

5.

For each blood transfusion problem A–E, select the most appropriate option from the following list. 1. ABO incompatibility. 2. Rhesus incompatibility. 3. Major incompatibility. 4. Minor incompatibility. 5. Multiple repeated transfusions. 6. Massive blood transfusion. 7. Use of stored blood. 8. Use of fresh blood.A. A patient has been given three units of blood during a surgical operation. Just after the operation the patient is at risk of inadequate tissue oxygenation despite satisfactory arterial blood pressure, hemoglobin and arterial blood oxygen saturation levels. B. A patient has been given two units of blood on the day before a planned surgical operation. Towards the end of the transfusion the patient was noted to have mild fever, and the next morning slight jaundice was noted in the conjunctivae. C. A patient admitted with vomiting of blood shows signs of circulatory failure and is given a unit of blood quite rapidly. As the transfusion is nearly completed it is discovered that there has been confusion between two patients with exactly the same first and second names and the patient with the transfusion appears much more unwell than at the start of the transfusion. In fact the group B patient was given group A blood. D. During emergency surgery for a dissected aortic aneurysm, a condition notorious for severe bleeding during operation, a patient is transfused with 20 units of blood. Despite restoration of a normal blood volume this patient is at risk of hypothermia, tissue hypoxia and coagulation problems. E. A patient with failure of bone marrow function causing aplastic anaemia is admitted for transfusion as the haemoglobin level has fallen to an unacceptable level. The blood bank report difficulty in finding suitable red cells due to problems with some of the ‘minor’ blood groups, M and Kell.

Answer»

A. Option 7 Use of stored blood. This blood has the characteristic property of stored blood – a low level of 2:3-DPG. Hence the blood oxygen dissociation curve is shifted to the left, and the blood does not give up adequate oxygen at tissue oxygen tensions.

B. Option 4 Minor incompatibility. There has been a mild antibody rejection of the donor red cells. A relatively small number of these have been broken down (lysed) to release bilirubin which causes the jaundice. The immune response also releases products, including interleukin-1, which cause the fever.

C. Option 3 Major incompatibility. This type of mistake carries a high risk of death because the recipient’s naturally occurring anti-A antibody (agglutinin) rapidly destroys the transfused group A red cells, releasing huge amounts of deadly toxins.

D. Option 6 Massive blood transfusion. A massive blood transfusion is defined as one where the volume of blood transfused equals or exceeds the patient’s original blood volume. Stored blood carries the problem mentioned in (A) but because large volumes of blood must be given very rapidly there is not time to heat them to body temperature from their initial low temperature, so the patient’s core temperature drops (hypothermia). This compounds the shift in the blood oxygen dissociation curve and also slows the coagulation reactions.

E. Option 5 Multiple repeated transfusions. Such patients require regular blood transfusions on repeated occasions, so their immune system builds up antibodies to minor blood group antigens such as M, N, Kell and Duffy.

Discussion

6.	A raised blood pH and bicarbonate level is consistent with A. Metabolic acidosis. B. Partly compensated respiratory alkalosis. C. A reduced PCO2. D. Chronic renal failure with a raised PCO2. E. A history of persistent vomiting of gastric contents.
Answer» A. False It is consistent with a metabolic alkalosis. B. False A partly compensated acidosis has a low pH. C. False P_CO2 is normally raised in metabolic alkalosis as a compensatory mechanism. D. False All these values are reduced in chronic renal failure. E. True Pyloric obstruction causes a metabolic alkalosis.

6.

A raised blood pH and bicarbonate level is consistent with A. Metabolic acidosis. B. Partly compensated respiratory alkalosis. C. A reduced PCO2. D. Chronic renal failure with a raised PCO2. E. A history of persistent vomiting of gastric contents.

Answer»

A. False It is consistent with a metabolic alkalosis.

B. False A partly compensated acidosis has a low pH.

C. False P_CO2 is normally raised in metabolic alkalosis as a compensatory mechanism.

D. False All these values are reduced in chronic renal failure.

E. True Pyloric obstruction causes a metabolic alkalosis.

Discussion

7.	A patient with an uncompensated respiratory alkalosis may have A. Been exposed to living at high altitudes. B. A reduced [H2CO3]:[HCO3- ] ratio. C. Neuromuscular hyperexcitability. D. An arterial pH of 7.3. E. A blood [H+] of 30 nmol/litre.
Answer» A. False Living at high altitudes induces partial compensation, i.e. fall in [HCO₃^- ] B. True This is consistent with alkalosis. C. True Alkalosis favours the development of tetany by increasing the binding power of plasma protein for ionic calcium. D. False This is an acidotic pH. E. True The normal level is 40 nmol/litre.

7.

A patient with an uncompensated respiratory alkalosis may have A. Been exposed to living at high altitudes. B. A reduced [H2CO3]:[HCO3- ] ratio. C. Neuromuscular hyperexcitability. D. An arterial pH of 7.3. E. A blood [H+] of 30 nmol/litre.

Answer»

A. False Living at high altitudes induces partial compensation, i.e. fall in [HCO₃^- ]

B. True This is consistent with alkalosis.

C. True Alkalosis favours the development of tetany by increasing the binding power of plasma protein for ionic calcium.

D. False This is an acidotic pH.

E. True The normal level is 40 nmol/litre.

Discussion

8.	A transplanted kidney is A. Able to maintain the recipient’s blood urea at normal levels. B. Able to correct the anaemia of chronic renal failure. C. Probably being rejected if the glomerular filtration rate is falling rapidly. D. Probably being rejected if there is a sharp rise in body temperature in the absence of infection. E. Probably being rejected if the urinary volume is low and the osmolality high.
Answer» A. True One normal kidney can do this. B. True By replacing the deficient erythropoietin. C. True This suggests nephron damage. D. True This, like a raised ESR and granulocyte count, suggests tissue destruction. E. False A high urinary osmolality suggests excellent renal function.

8.

A transplanted kidney is A. Able to maintain the recipient’s blood urea at normal levels. B. Able to correct the anaemia of chronic renal failure. C. Probably being rejected if the glomerular filtration rate is falling rapidly. D. Probably being rejected if there is a sharp rise in body temperature in the absence of infection. E. Probably being rejected if the urinary volume is low and the osmolality high.

Answer»

A. True One normal kidney can do this.

B. True By replacing the deficient erythropoietin.

C. True This suggests nephron damage.

D. True This, like a raised ESR and granulocyte count, suggests tissue destruction.

E. False A high urinary osmolality suggests excellent renal function.

Discussion

9.	Helium is used to replace nitrogen in gas breathed by divers because it A. Is more soluble in body fluids. B. Diffuses through the tissues more rapidly. C. Causes less depression of cerebral function. D. Diminishes the work of breathing relative to nitrogen.E. Combines less readily with haemoglobin.
Answer» A. False Being less soluble, less goes into solution during compression so there is less bubble formation during decompression. B. True This also reduces the time needed for decompression. C. True It is less narcotic than nitrogen. D. True It is less viscous than nitrogen. E. False Neither combine with hemoglobin.

9.

Helium is used to replace nitrogen in gas breathed by divers because it A. Is more soluble in body fluids. B. Diffuses through the tissues more rapidly. C. Causes less depression of cerebral function. D. Diminishes the work of breathing relative to nitrogen.E. Combines less readily with haemoglobin.

Answer»

A. False Being less soluble, less goes into solution during compression so there is less bubble formation during decompression.

B. True This also reduces the time needed for decompression.

C. True It is less narcotic than nitrogen.

D. True It is less viscous than nitrogen.

E. False Neither combine with hemoglobin.

Discussion

10.	Someone who has received an electric shock causing ventricular fibrillation A. Loses consciousness in less than a minute. B. Has a reduction in cardiac output of about 50 per cent. C. Has a rapid but weak carotid pulse. D. Should be given external cardiac massage after removal from the electrical contact. E. Should not be given artificial ventilation until the ventricular fibrillation has been reversed.
Answer» A. True Due to the abrupt fall in cerebral blood flow. B. False Cardiac output is nil. C. False There is no cardiac output; hence no pulse. D. True This will prevent brain damage until the fibrillation has been reversed. E. False Artificial ventilation must accompany cardiac massage to avoid brain damage.

10.

Someone who has received an electric shock causing ventricular fibrillation A. Loses consciousness in less than a minute. B. Has a reduction in cardiac output of about 50 per cent. C. Has a rapid but weak carotid pulse. D. Should be given external cardiac massage after removal from the electrical contact. E. Should not be given artificial ventilation until the ventricular fibrillation has been reversed.

Answer»

A. True Due to the abrupt fall in cerebral blood flow.

B. False Cardiac output is nil.

C. False There is no cardiac output; hence no pulse.

D. True This will prevent brain damage until the fibrillation has been reversed.

E. False Artificial ventilation must accompany cardiac massage to avoid brain damage.

Discussion

11.	A patient with fever A. Has warm extremities as central temperature rises. B. Has a raised basal metabolic rate. C. Shows evidence of altered hypothalamic function. D. Loses the capacity for reflex thermoregulation. E. May develop heat stroke if the core temperature rises to 40oC.
Answer» A. False Reflex vasoconstriction causes cold hands at this stage. B. True The raised body temperature speeds metabolism. C. True The ‘set point’ for temperature regulation is raised. D. False Core temperature is maintained around the raised level. E. False The core temperature needs to rise to about 43^o C before heat stroke develops.

11.

A patient with fever A. Has warm extremities as central temperature rises. B. Has a raised basal metabolic rate. C. Shows evidence of altered hypothalamic function. D. Loses the capacity for reflex thermoregulation. E. May develop heat stroke if the core temperature rises to 40oC.

Answer»

A. False Reflex vasoconstriction causes cold hands at this stage.

B. True The raised body temperature speeds metabolism.

C. True The ‘set point’ for temperature regulation is raised.

D. False Core temperature is maintained around the raised level.

E. False The core temperature needs to rise to about 43^o C before heat stroke develops.

Discussion

12.	A patient with partly compensated respiratory acidosis A. Must have a raised PCO2. B. May have a reduced hydrogen ion concentration [H+]. C. Must have a raised bicarbonate concentration [HCO3- ]. D. May have evidence of renal compensation. E. May have respiratory failure due to hypoventilation
Answer» A. True This is the hallmark of a respiratory acidosis. B. False [H⁺] is raised in uncompensated acidosis. C. True The raised [HCO₃^- ] is compensating partly for the raised P_CO2. D. True The raised [HCO_3- ], compensating the raised P_CO2 is generated by the kidneys. E. True This leads to retention of carbon dioxide.

12.

A patient with partly compensated respiratory acidosis A. Must have a raised PCO2. B. May have a reduced hydrogen ion concentration [H+]. C. Must have a raised bicarbonate concentration [HCO3- ]. D. May have evidence of renal compensation. E. May have respiratory failure due to hypoventilation

Answer»

A. True This is the hallmark of a respiratory acidosis.

B. False [H⁺] is raised in uncompensated acidosis.

C. True The raised [HCO₃^- ] is compensating partly for the raised P_CO2.

D. True The raised [HCO_3- ], compensating the raised P_CO2 is generated by the kidneys.

E. True This leads to retention of carbon dioxide.

Discussion

13.	Antibodies A. Are protein molecules. B. Are absent from the blood in early fetal life. C. Are produced at a greater rate after a first, than after a second, exposure to an antigen six weeks later. D. Circulating as free immunoglobulins are produced by B lymphocytes. E. With a 1 in 8 titre are more concentrated than ones with a 1 in 4 titre.
Answer» A. True They are made by ribosomes in plasma cells. B. True Immunological tolerance prevents the fetus forming antibodies to its own proteins. C. False The response to the second exposure is greater since the immune system has been sensitized by the first exposure. D. True T lymphocytes are responsible for cell-mediated immunity. E. True Antibody with a 1 in 8 titre is detected at greater dilution than one with a 1 in 4 titre.

13.

Antibodies A. Are protein molecules. B. Are absent from the blood in early fetal life. C. Are produced at a greater rate after a first, than after a second, exposure to an antigen six weeks later. D. Circulating as free immunoglobulins are produced by B lymphocytes. E. With a 1 in 8 titre are more concentrated than ones with a 1 in 4 titre.

Answer»

A. True They are made by ribosomes in plasma cells.

B. True Immunological tolerance prevents the fetus forming antibodies to its own proteins.

C. False The response to the second exposure is greater since the immune system has been sensitized by the first exposure.

D. True T lymphocytes are responsible for cell-mediated immunity.

E. True Antibody with a 1 in 8 titre is detected at greater dilution than one with a 1 in 4 titre.

Discussion

14.	Transdermal drug delivery systems offer the following advantages except: A. They produce high peak plasma concentration of the drug B. They produce smooth and nonfluctuating plasma concentration of the drug C. They minimise interindividual variations in the achieved plasma drug concentration D. They avoid hepatic first-pass metabolism of the drug
Answer» A. They produce high peak plasma concentration of the drug

Discussion

15.	In addition to slow intravenous infusion, which of the following routes of administration allows for titration of the dose of a drug with the response: A. Sublingual B. Transdermal C. Inhalational D. Nasal insufflation
Answer» C. Inhalational

Discussion

16.	Acidosis in a patient may lead to A. Increased urinary excretion of potassium. B. Hypoventilation. C. A blood pH of less than 5.5. D. A urinary pH of less than 5.5. E. Tetany.
Answer» A. False Hydrogen ions compete with potassium for secretion. B. False Ventilation is increased in acidosis. C. False This level would be fatal. D. True Urinary pH may fall below 5.0. E. False Acidosis reduces the risk of tetany by decreasing protein affinity for calcium.

16.

Acidosis in a patient may lead to A. Increased urinary excretion of potassium. B. Hypoventilation. C. A blood pH of less than 5.5. D. A urinary pH of less than 5.5. E. Tetany.

Answer»

A. False Hydrogen ions compete with potassium for secretion.

B. False Ventilation is increased in acidosis.

C. False This level would be fatal.

D. True Urinary pH may fall below 5.0.

E. False Acidosis reduces the risk of tetany by decreasing protein affinity for calcium.

Discussion

17.	Circulating red blood cells A. Are about 1 per cent nucleated. B. May show an intracellular network pattern if appropriately stained. C. Are distributed evenly across the blood stream in large blood vessels. D. Travel at slower velocity in venules than in capillaries. E. Deform as they pass through the capillaries.
Answer» A. False Nucleated red cells are not normally seen in peripheral blood. B. True Reticulocytes, the most immature circulating RBCs, show this pattern when stained with certain dyes. C. False They form an axial stream away from the vessel wall. D. False The capillary bed has a greater total cross-sectional area than the venular bed. E. True Normal cells, around 7 microns in diameter, become bullet-shaped as they pass through 5 micron diameter capillaries.

17.

Circulating red blood cells A. Are about 1 per cent nucleated. B. May show an intracellular network pattern if appropriately stained. C. Are distributed evenly across the blood stream in large blood vessels. D. Travel at slower velocity in venules than in capillaries. E. Deform as they pass through the capillaries.

Answer»

A. False Nucleated red cells are not normally seen in peripheral blood.

B. True Reticulocytes, the most immature circulating RBCs, show this pattern when stained with certain dyes.

C. False They form an axial stream away from the vessel wall.

D. False The capillary bed has a greater total cross-sectional area than the venular bed.

E. True Normal cells, around 7 microns in diameter, become bullet-shaped as they pass through 5 micron diameter capillaries.

Discussion

18.	When a patient inherits a disease as a recessive autosomal character A. One of the parents of the patient will exhibit the disease. B. All of the children of the patient will exhibit the disease. C. All of the children of the patient will be carriers. D. Both parents of the patient must carry the recessive character. E. Subsequent siblings have a 50 per cent risk of the disorder.
Answer» A. False Both parents are usually healthy. B. False They are likely to be normal due to the dominant normal gene from the spouse. C. True All will receive the recessive gene from the patient. D. True Only thus will the patient have a homozygous genotype. E. False From simple Mendelian laws the chances are 25 per cent.

18.

When a patient inherits a disease as a recessive autosomal character A. One of the parents of the patient will exhibit the disease. B. All of the children of the patient will exhibit the disease. C. All of the children of the patient will be carriers. D. Both parents of the patient must carry the recessive character. E. Subsequent siblings have a 50 per cent risk of the disorder.

Answer»

A. False Both parents are usually healthy.

B. False They are likely to be normal due to the dominant normal gene from the spouse.

C. True All will receive the recessive gene from the patient.

D. True Only thus will the patient have a homozygous genotype.

E. False From simple Mendelian laws the chances are 25 per cent.

Discussion

19.	Blood A. Makes up about 7 per cent of body weight. B. Forms a higher percentage of body weight in fat than in thin people. C. Volume can be calculated by multiplying plasma volume by the haematocrit (expressed as a percentage). D. Volume rises after water is drunk. E. Expresses serum when it clots.
Answer» A. True For example, 5 kg (about 5 litres) in a 70 kg man. B. False Since fat tissue is relatively avascular, the reverse is true. C. False It can be calculated by multiplying plasma volume by 1/1 minus haematocrit (expressed as a decimal). D. True The water is absorbed into the blood. E. True Serum is plasma minus its clotting factors.

19.

Blood A. Makes up about 7 per cent of body weight. B. Forms a higher percentage of body weight in fat than in thin people. C. Volume can be calculated by multiplying plasma volume by the haematocrit (expressed as a percentage). D. Volume rises after water is drunk. E. Expresses serum when it clots.

Answer»

A. True For example, 5 kg (about 5 litres) in a 70 kg man.

B. False Since fat tissue is relatively avascular, the reverse is true.

C. False It can be calculated by multiplying plasma volume by 1/1 minus haematocrit (expressed as a decimal).

D. True The water is absorbed into the blood.

E. True Serum is plasma minus its clotting factors.

Discussion

20.	If treatment A is superior to treatment B in certain respects (with a P value less than 0.01) it can be concluded that A. A given patient’s chances of improvement by treatment A are 99 per cent. B. The likelihood that the observed difference between treatments A and B is due to chance is less than 1 per cent. C. The observed superiority is statistically significant. D. At least 100 patients were studied. E. Treatment A should now be substituted for treatment B.
Answer» A. False This cannot be concluded from the results given. B. True This is the meaning of P less than 0.01. C. True Conventionally P must then be less than 0.05. D. False This cannot be concluded from the results given. E. False Adverse effects may outweigh the benefit shown.

20.

If treatment A is superior to treatment B in certain respects (with a P value less than 0.01) it can be concluded that A. A given patient’s chances of improvement by treatment A are 99 per cent. B. The likelihood that the observed difference between treatments A and B is due to chance is less than 1 per cent. C. The observed superiority is statistically significant. D. At least 100 patients were studied. E. Treatment A should now be substituted for treatment B.

Answer»

A. False This cannot be concluded from the results given.

B. True This is the meaning of P less than 0.01.

C. True Conventionally P must then be less than 0.05.

D. False This cannot be concluded from the results given.

E. False Adverse effects may outweigh the benefit shown.

Discussion

21.	Antibodies (agglutinins) of the A and B red cell antigens (agglutinogens) A. Are present in fetal plasma. B. Cause haemolysis of RBCs containing the A and B antigens when added to a suspension of red cells in saline. C. Do not normally cross the placental barrier. D. Have a molecular weight in excess of 500 000. E. Are monovalent.
Answer» A. False They form shortly after birth, possibly in response to A and B antigens carried into the body by invading bacteria. B. False They cause agglutination (clumping) of A, B and AB cells. C. True Unlike Rh antibodies which have a smaller molecular size. D. True Around 1000000. E. False They are divalent and hence cause red cells to adhere to one another during agglutination.

21.

Antibodies (agglutinins) of the A and B red cell antigens (agglutinogens) A. Are present in fetal plasma. B. Cause haemolysis of RBCs containing the A and B antigens when added to a suspension of red cells in saline. C. Do not normally cross the placental barrier. D. Have a molecular weight in excess of 500 000. E. Are monovalent.

Answer»

A. False They form shortly after birth, possibly in response to A and B antigens carried into the body by invading bacteria.

B. False They cause agglutination (clumping) of A, B and AB cells.

C. True Unlike Rh antibodies which have a smaller molecular size.

D. True Around 1000000.

E. False They are divalent and hence cause red cells to adhere to one another during agglutination.

Discussion

22.	Lymphocytes A. Constitute 1–2 per cent of circulating white cells. B. Are motile. C. Can transform into plasma cells. D. Decrease in number following removal of the adult thymus gland. E. Decrease in number during immunosuppressive drug therapy.
Answer» A. False About 20 per cent of leukocytes are lymphocytes. B. True They migrate by amoeboid movement to areas of chronic inflammation. C. True As plasma cells they manufacture humoral antibodies. D. False The thymus is atrophied and has little function in the adult. E. True Lymphocytes and immune responses are closely linked.

22.

Lymphocytes A. Constitute 1–2 per cent of circulating white cells. B. Are motile. C. Can transform into plasma cells. D. Decrease in number following removal of the adult thymus gland. E. Decrease in number during immunosuppressive drug therapy.

Answer»

A. False About 20 per cent of leukocytes are lymphocytes.

B. True They migrate by amoeboid movement to areas of chronic inflammation.

C. True As plasma cells they manufacture humoral antibodies.

D. False The thymus is atrophied and has little function in the adult.

E. True Lymphocytes and immune responses are closely linked.

Discussion

23.	The specific gravity (relative density) ofA. Red cells is less than that of plasma. B. Plasma is due more to its protein than to its electrolyte content. C. Plasma decreases as extracellular fluid and electrolytes are lost. D. Blood is higher on average in women than in men. E. Urine can fall below 1.000 in a water diuresis
Answer» A. False Red cells are heavier and hence sediment on standing. B. True The mass of plasma proteins (70–80 grams/litre) far exceeds that of plasma electrolytes (about 10 grams/litre). C. False It increases; plasma specific gravity is an index of ECF volume if protein levels are normal. D. False It is higher in men, who have a higher haematocrit. E. False The specific gravity of pure water is 1.000; urine is water plus solutes.

23.

The specific gravity (relative density) ofA. Red cells is less than that of plasma. B. Plasma is due more to its protein than to its electrolyte content. C. Plasma decreases as extracellular fluid and electrolytes are lost. D. Blood is higher on average in women than in men. E. Urine can fall below 1.000 in a water diuresis

Answer»

A. False Red cells are heavier and hence sediment on standing.

B. True The mass of plasma proteins (70–80 grams/litre) far exceeds that of plasma electrolytes (about 10 grams/litre).

C. False It increases; plasma specific gravity is an index of ECF volume if protein levels are normal.

D. False It is higher in men, who have a higher haematocrit.

E. False The specific gravity of pure water is 1.000; urine is water plus solutes.

Discussion

24.	Blood platelets A. Are formed in the bone marrow. B. Are normally more numerous than white cells. C. Have a small single-lobed nucleus. D. Increase in number after injury and surgery. E. Alter shape when in contact with collagen.
Answer» A. True They are formed from megalokaryocytes. B. True By a factor of 20 or more. C. False No nucleus – but the cytoplasm contains electron dense granules, lysosomes and mitochondria. D. True This increases the tendency of blood to clot. E. True They put out pseudopodia and adhere to the collagen and to one another.

24.

Blood platelets A. Are formed in the bone marrow. B. Are normally more numerous than white cells. C. Have a small single-lobed nucleus. D. Increase in number after injury and surgery. E. Alter shape when in contact with collagen.

Answer»

A. True They are formed from megalokaryocytes.

B. True By a factor of 20 or more.

C. False No nucleus – but the cytoplasm contains electron dense granules, lysosomes and mitochondria.

D. True This increases the tendency of blood to clot.

E. True They put out pseudopodia and adhere to the collagen and to one another.

Discussion

25.	Concentration of the following is higher in intracellular fluid than in extracellular fluid: (A) Sodium (B) Potassium (C) Chloride (D) Bicarbonate
Answer» (B) Potassium

Discussion

26.	ADH (A) Reabsorbs water from renal tubules (B) Excretes water from renal tubules(C) Excretes hypotonic urine (D) Causes low specific gravity of urine
Answer» (D) Causes low specific gravity of urine

Discussion

27.	The % of ‘K’ in Extracellular fluid is about (A) 1% (B) 2 to 3% (C) 10% (D) 15%
Answer» Correct option (A) 1%

27.

The % of ‘K’ in Extracellular fluid is about (A) 1% (B) 2 to 3% (C) 10% (D) 15%

Answer»

Correct option (A) 1%

Discussion

28.	What is the principal cation of intracellular fluid? (A) K+ (B) Na+ (C) Ca2+ (D) Mg2+
Answer» Correct option (A) K⁺

28.

What is the principal cation of intracellular fluid? (A) K+ (B) Na+ (C) Ca2+ (D) Mg2+

Answer»

Correct option (A) K⁺

Discussion

29.	A low serum potassium level A. Can be suspected from the appearance of the ECG. B. Can result from repeated vomiting of gastric contents. C. Indicates that total body potassium is low. D. May be a consequence of aldosterone deficiency. E. Impairs gut motility.
Answer» A. True It leads to low voltage T waves. B. True The vomitus is relatively rich in potassium. C. False It is a poor reflector of total body potassium. D. False This favours retention of potassium and a high serum level. E. True It may cause paralyticileus (paralysis of peristalsis).

29.

A low serum potassium level A. Can be suspected from the appearance of the ECG. B. Can result from repeated vomiting of gastric contents. C. Indicates that total body potassium is low. D. May be a consequence of aldosterone deficiency. E. Impairs gut motility.

Answer»

A. True It leads to low voltage T waves.

B. True The vomitus is relatively rich in potassium.

C. False It is a poor reflector of total body potassium.

D. False This favours retention of potassium and a high serum level.

E. True It may cause paralyticileus (paralysis of peristalsis).

Discussion

30.	An increase in the osmolality of extracellular compartment will (A) Inhibit ADH secretion (B) Stimulate ADH secretion (C) Cause no change in ADH secretion (D) Stimulate the volume and osmoreceptor and inhibit ADH secretion
Answer» (B) Stimulate ADH secretion

Discussion

31.	Severe reactions are likely after transfusion of blood group A. A to a group B person. B. O to a group AB person. C. A to a group O person. D. A to a group AB person. E. O Rh- negative to a group AB Rh-positive person.
Answer» A. True The recipients have anti-A antibody. B. False Group O people are ‘universal donors’. C. True The recipients have anti-A antibody. D. False Group AB persons, ‘universal recipients’, lack anti-A and anti-B antibodies. E. False The recipients lack anti-A, anti-B and anti-Rh antibodies.

31.

Severe reactions are likely after transfusion of blood group A. A to a group B person. B. O to a group AB person. C. A to a group O person. D. A to a group AB person. E. O Rh- negative to a group AB Rh-positive person.

Answer»

A. True The recipients have anti-A antibody.

B. False Group O people are ‘universal donors’.

C. True The recipients have anti-A antibody.

D. False Group AB persons, ‘universal recipients’, lack anti-A and anti-B antibodies.

E. False The recipients lack anti-A, anti-B and anti-Rh antibodies.

Discussion

32.	A rise in the osmolality of extracellular fluid may lead to A. Thirst. B. Increased water reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubules. C. Release of vasopressin. D. A fall in intracellular fluid volume. E. Suppression of sweat secretion.
Answer» A. True Due to stimulation of hypothalamic osmoreceptors. B. False Water reabsorption in proximal tubules is not geared to meet body water needs. C. True Impulses from hypothalamic osmoreceptors cause release of pituitary vasopressin. D. True The cells shrink as fluid is drawn out osmotically. E. False Sweat production is not geared to body fluid requirements.

32.

A rise in the osmolality of extracellular fluid may lead to A. Thirst. B. Increased water reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubules. C. Release of vasopressin. D. A fall in intracellular fluid volume. E. Suppression of sweat secretion.

Answer»

A. True Due to stimulation of hypothalamic osmoreceptors.

B. False Water reabsorption in proximal tubules is not geared to meet body water needs.

C. True Impulses from hypothalamic osmoreceptors cause release of pituitary vasopressin.

D. True The cells shrink as fluid is drawn out osmotically.

E. False Sweat production is not geared to body fluid requirements.

Discussion

33.	The cell membranes in skeletal muscle A. Are impermeable to fat-soluble substances. B. Are more permeable to sodium than to potassium ions. C. Become more permeable to glucose in the presence of insulin. D. Become less permeable to potassium in the presence of insulin. E. Show invaginations which connect to a system of intracellular tubules involved in excitation contraction coupling.
Answer» A. False The membrane consists largely of lipid. B. False The reverse is true; sodium ions, being more hydrated than potassium ions, are larger complexes. C. True Thus glucose is stored as muscle glycogen after a meal. D. False They become more permeable; injections of insulin and glucose lower the serum potassium level. E. True These are called the T system of tubules.

33.

The cell membranes in skeletal muscle A. Are impermeable to fat-soluble substances. B. Are more permeable to sodium than to potassium ions. C. Become more permeable to glucose in the presence of insulin. D. Become less permeable to potassium in the presence of insulin. E. Show invaginations which connect to a system of intracellular tubules involved in excitation contraction coupling.

Answer»

A. False The membrane consists largely of lipid.

B. False The reverse is true; sodium ions, being more hydrated than potassium ions, are larger complexes.

C. True Thus glucose is stored as muscle glycogen after a meal.

D. False They become more permeable; injections of insulin and glucose lower the serum potassium level.

E. True These are called the T system of tubules.

Discussion

34.	The osmolality of A. A solution determines its freezing point. B. Intracellular fluid is about twice that of extracellular fluid. C. 1.8 per cent sodium chloride is about twice that of normal plasma. D. 5 per cent dextrose solution is about five times that of 0.9 per cent saline.E. Plasma is due more to its protein than to its electrolyte content.
Answer» A. True Depression of the freezing point is an index of a solution’s osmolality. B. False Their osmolality is the same; osmotic water movements ensure that this is so. C. True Plasma has the tonicity of a normal saline solution (0.9 per cent sodium chloride). D. False They have the same number of particles. E. False Proteins account for only 1 per cent of plasma osmolality.

34.

The osmolality of A. A solution determines its freezing point. B. Intracellular fluid is about twice that of extracellular fluid. C. 1.8 per cent sodium chloride is about twice that of normal plasma. D. 5 per cent dextrose solution is about five times that of 0.9 per cent saline.E. Plasma is due more to its protein than to its electrolyte content.

Answer»

A. True Depression of the freezing point is an index of a solution’s osmolality.

B. False Their osmolality is the same; osmotic water movements ensure that this is so.

C. True Plasma has the tonicity of a normal saline solution (0.9 per cent sodium chloride).

D. False They have the same number of particles.

E. False Proteins account for only 1 per cent of plasma osmolality.

Discussion

35.	For each of the descriptions related to body fluids A–E, select the most appropriate option from the following list. 1. Osmolality. 2. Plasma albumin. 3. Glucose. 4. Sodium. 5. Plasma globulin.A. Responsible for most of the colloid osmotic pressure of the plasma. B. Responsible for fluid shifts between intracellular and extracellular fluid. C. Provides about half of osmotically active particles in extracellular fluid. D. Mainly responsible for opposing the leak of fluid out of capillaries. E. Determines the freezing point of a solution.
Answer» A. Option 2 Plasma albumin. Colloid osmotic pressure is due to protein molecules which cannot readily cross the capillary wall; albumin constitutes the larger portion of the plasma protein mass, its molecules are smaller than globulin so it exerts much more osmotic pressure. B. Option 1 Osmolality. Water passes across the cell wall by osmotic forces due to the sum of the effects of all dissolved particles – the osmolality. C. Option 4 Sodium. Sodium has a concentration around 135 mmol per litre and provides nearly half of the total osmolality of around 285 mosmol per kg. D. Option 2 Plasma albumin. Because most particles are in equilibrium across the capillary wall they do not contribute to the osmotic force opposing fluid leak. The proteins provide an opposing force and albumin is the commonest protein particle. E. Option 1 Osmolality. Osmolality can be measured by noting the freezing point of the solution being tested.

35.

For each of the descriptions related to body fluids A–E, select the most appropriate option from the following list. 1. Osmolality. 2. Plasma albumin. 3. Glucose. 4. Sodium. 5. Plasma globulin.A. Responsible for most of the colloid osmotic pressure of the plasma. B. Responsible for fluid shifts between intracellular and extracellular fluid. C. Provides about half of osmotically active particles in extracellular fluid. D. Mainly responsible for opposing the leak of fluid out of capillaries. E. Determines the freezing point of a solution.

Answer»

A. Option 2 Plasma albumin. Colloid osmotic pressure is due to protein molecules which cannot readily cross the capillary wall; albumin constitutes the larger portion of the plasma protein mass, its molecules are smaller than globulin so it exerts much more osmotic pressure.

B. Option 1 Osmolality. Water passes across the cell wall by osmotic forces due to the sum of the effects of all dissolved particles – the osmolality.

C. Option 4 Sodium. Sodium has a concentration around 135 mmol per litre and provides nearly half of the total osmolality of around 285 mosmol per kg.

D. Option 2 Plasma albumin. Because most particles are in equilibrium across the capillary wall they do not contribute to the osmotic force opposing fluid leak. The proteins provide an opposing force and albumin is the commonest protein particle.

E. Option 1 Osmolality. Osmolality can be measured by noting the freezing point of the solution being tested.

Discussion

36.	TCDD (2,3,6,7-tetrachlorodibenzo(p)dioxin) is a toxic synthetic chemical. The most consistent adverse effect observed in exposed humans is:w) liver cancer x) birth defects y) disfiguring skin eruption z) an exaggerated sense of well-being
Answer» DISFIGURING SKIN ERUPTION (CHLORACNE)

Discussion

37.	Give two examples for vestigial organs in human beings.
Answer» Appendix and hair on pinna.

Discussion

38.	What happens if both kidneys fail completely ?
Answer» If kidneys stop working completely, our body will be filled with extra water and poisonous nitrogenous wastes. This condition is called uremia. Finally, it leads to the death of the person.

Discussion

39.	Identify the incorrect statement about the given diagram `:-` A. Single this layer of flattened cells with irregular boundariesB. Found in the walls of blood vesselsC. Involved in functions like forming a diffusion boundaryD. Specialited cell juncitons are absent
Answer» Correct Answer - D

Discussion

40.	Assertion`:-` Plasmids are extrachromosomal `DNA` Reason`:-` Plasmids are found in bacteria that is useful in genetic engineering.A. If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.B. If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertiion.C. If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.D. If both Assertion & Reason are False
Answer» Correct Answer - A

Discussion

41.	Assertion`:-` Viruses did not find a place in any classification. Reason`:-` Viruses contain genetic material that could be either `RNA` or `DNA`A. If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.B. If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertiion.C. If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.D. If both Assertion & Reason are False
Answer» Correct Answer - B

Discussion

42.	Haversian canals are found in `:-`A. Aves bonesB. Mammalian spongy boneC. Mamalian compact boneD. All bones
Answer» Correct Answer - C

Discussion

43.	A goods train in moving with constant acceleration. When engine passes through a signal its speed is v. What will be the speed of the last wagon.
Answer» Let length of train S and initial velocity of train given V so velocity of last wagon will be V² = u² + 2as a = constant acceleration V = \(\sqrt{u^2 + 2aS}\)

43.

A goods train in moving with constant acceleration. When engine passes through a signal its speed is v. What will be the speed of the last wagon.

Answer»

Let length of train S and initial velocity of train given V so velocity of last wagon will be

V² = u² + 2as a = constant acceleration

V = \(\sqrt{u^2 + 2aS}\)

Discussion

44.	Identify the group number of `T hat(l)` element in periodic table.A. Group number `= 13`B. Group number `= 4`C. Group number `=16`D. Group number `=7`
Answer» Correct Answer - A `Tl` belongs to Boron family i.e. group no. 13.

Discussion

45.	`CaOCl_(2)overset(Delta)underset(CoCl_(2))rarr`product, The product areA. `CaCl_(2)`B. `O_(2)`C. `Ca(ClO_(3))_(2)`D. All of these
Answer» Correct Answer - ab

Discussion

46.	Which of the following compounds are dimerised due to the formation of 3 centre four electron bond-A. `BH_(3)`B. `AIF_(3)`C. `AIBr_(3)`D. `AlCl_(3)`
Answer» Correct Answer - cd

Discussion

47.	Identify the oxidising agent in the following reaction.CuSO4 + Zn → Cu + ZnSO4(a) Cu(b) ZnSO4(c) CuSO4(d) Zn
Answer» The answer is (b) ZnSO₄

Discussion

48.	Name the scientist who prepared first organic compound in a laboratory.
Answer» Wohler prepared first organic compound in a laboratory.

Discussion

49.	The part of the eye that control the amount of light entering the eye is(a) pupil(b) Iris(c) Cornea(d) Retina
Answer» The answer is (b) Iris

Discussion

50.	"When the angle of incidence is greater than critical angle, the light ray is reflected into denser medium at interface".Which phenomenon of light does the above information refer ?
Answer» Total internal reflection.

Discussion

Explore topic-wise InterviewSolutions in Current Affairs.

The pH A. Of arterial blood normally ranges from 7.2 to 7.6. B. Units express [H+] in moles/litre. C. Of blood is directly proportional to the PCO2. D. Of blood is directly proportional to [HCO3- ]. E. Of urine is usually less than 7.

Cerebrospinal fluid A. Is an ultrafiltrate of plasma. B. Is the main source of the brain’s nutrition. C. Has the same pH as arterial blood. D. Has a higher glucose concentration than has plasma. E. Has a higher calcium concentration than has plasma.

A raised blood pH and bicarbonate level is consistent with A. Metabolic acidosis. B. Partly compensated respiratory alkalosis. C. A reduced PCO2. D. Chronic renal failure with a raised PCO2. E. A history of persistent vomiting of gastric contents.

A patient with an uncompensated respiratory alkalosis may have A. Been exposed to living at high altitudes. B. A reduced [H2CO3]:[HCO3- ] ratio. C. Neuromuscular hyperexcitability. D. An arterial pH of 7.3. E. A blood [H+] of 30 nmol/litre.

A patient with fever A. Has warm extremities as central temperature rises. B. Has a raised basal metabolic rate. C. Shows evidence of altered hypothalamic function. D. Loses the capacity for reflex thermoregulation. E. May develop heat stroke if the core temperature rises to 40oC.

A patient with partly compensated respiratory acidosis A. Must have a raised PCO2. B. May have a reduced hydrogen ion concentration [H+]. C. Must have a raised bicarbonate concentration [HCO3- ]. D. May have evidence of renal compensation. E. May have respiratory failure due to hypoventilation

In addition to slow intravenous infusion, which of the following routes of administration allows for titration of the dose of a drug with the response: A. Sublingual B. Transdermal C. Inhalational D. Nasal insufflation

Acidosis in a patient may lead to A. Increased urinary excretion of potassium. B. Hypoventilation. C. A blood pH of less than 5.5. D. A urinary pH of less than 5.5. E. Tetany.

Blood A. Makes up about 7 per cent of body weight. B. Forms a higher percentage of body weight in fat than in thin people. C. Volume can be calculated by multiplying plasma volume by the haematocrit (expressed as a percentage). D. Volume rises after water is drunk. E. Expresses serum when it clots.

Lymphocytes A. Constitute 1–2 per cent of circulating white cells. B. Are motile. C. Can transform into plasma cells. D. Decrease in number following removal of the adult thymus gland. E. Decrease in number during immunosuppressive drug therapy.

Blood platelets A. Are formed in the bone marrow. B. Are normally more numerous than white cells. C. Have a small single-lobed nucleus. D. Increase in number after injury and surgery. E. Alter shape when in contact with collagen.

Concentration of the following is higher in intracellular fluid than in extracellular fluid: (A) Sodium (B) Potassium (C) Chloride (D) Bicarbonate

ADH (A) Reabsorbs water from renal tubules (B) Excretes water from renal tubules(C) Excretes hypotonic urine (D) Causes low specific gravity of urine

The % of ‘K’ in Extracellular fluid is about (A) 1% (B) 2 to 3% (C) 10% (D) 15%

What is the principal cation of intracellular fluid? (A) K+ (B) Na+ (C) Ca2+ (D) Mg2+

A low serum potassium level A. Can be suspected from the appearance of the ECG. B. Can result from repeated vomiting of gastric contents. C. Indicates that total body potassium is low. D. May be a consequence of aldosterone deficiency. E. Impairs gut motility.

An increase in the osmolality of extracellular compartment will (A) Inhibit ADH secretion (B) Stimulate ADH secretion (C) Cause no change in ADH secretion (D) Stimulate the volume and osmoreceptor and inhibit ADH secretion

Severe reactions are likely after transfusion of blood group A. A to a group B person. B. O to a group AB person. C. A to a group O person. D. A to a group AB person. E. O Rh- negative to a group AB Rh-positive person.

A rise in the osmolality of extracellular fluid may lead to A. Thirst. B. Increased water reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubules. C. Release of vasopressin. D. A fall in intracellular fluid volume. E. Suppression of sweat secretion.

TCDD (2,3,6,7-tetrachlorodibenzo(p)dioxin) is a toxic synthetic chemical. The most consistent adverse effect observed in exposed humans is:w) liver cancer x) birth defects y) disfiguring skin eruption z) an exaggerated sense of well-being

Give two examples for vestigial organs in human beings.

What happens if both kidneys fail completely ?

Identify the incorrect statement about the given diagram `:-` A. Single this layer of flattened cells with irregular boundariesB. Found in the walls of blood vesselsC. Involved in functions like forming a diffusion boundaryD. Specialited cell juncitons are absent

Haversian canals are found in `:-`A. Aves bonesB. Mammalian spongy boneC. Mamalian compact boneD. All bones

A goods train in moving with constant acceleration. When engine passes through a signal its speed is v. What will be the speed of the last wagon.

Identify the group number of `T hat(l)` element in periodic table.A. Group number `= 13`B. Group number `= 4`C. Group number `=16`D. Group number `=7`

`CaOCl_(2)overset(Delta)underset(CoCl_(2))rarr`product, The product areA. `CaCl_(2)`B. `O_(2)`C. `Ca(ClO_(3))_(2)`D. All of these

Which of the following compounds are dimerised due to the formation of 3 centre four electron bond-A. `BH_(3)`B. `AIF_(3)`C. `AIBr_(3)`D. `AlCl_(3)`

Identify the oxidising agent in the following reaction.CuSO4 + Zn → Cu + ZnSO4(a) Cu(b) ZnSO4(c) CuSO4(d) Zn

Name the scientist who prepared first organic compound in a laboratory.

The part of the eye that control the amount of light entering the eye is(a) pupil(b) Iris(c) Cornea(d) Retina

"When the angle of incidence is greater than critical angle, the light ray is reflected into denser medium at interface".Which phenomenon of light does the above information refer ?