Explore topic-wise InterviewSolutions in Current Affairs.

This section includes 7 InterviewSolutions, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Current Affairs knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

For the decomposition of `Hl` on the surface of gold the only correct combination isA. (III)(ii)`(R)`B. (II)(i)(P)C. (IV)(i)(P)D. (I)(iii)(z)

Answer» Correct Answer - B::C
Decomposition of `HI` on surface of gold ils a zero order reaction.
2.

A uniform conducting ring of mass `pi` kg and radius 1 m is kept on smooth horizontal table. A uniform but time varying magnetic field `B = (hat (i) + t^(2) hat (j))T` is present in the region, where t is time in seconds. Resistance of ring is `2 (Omega)`. Then Time (in second) at which ring start toppling isA. `(10)/(pi)sec`B. `(20)/(pi)sec`C. `(5)/(pi)sec`D. `(5)/(pi)sec`

Answer» Correct Answer - A
`I=(1)/(R)|(dphi)/(dt)|=(1)/(2)pixx1^(2)::2t=pit`
The ring will start toppling when
`tau_(m)=tau_(g)`
`impliesIAB_(x)=mgr`
`impliespitxxpixx1^(2)xx1=pixx10xx1`
`impliest=(10)/(pi)sec`
3.

Which one is the correct ground state electronic configuration `:`A. B. C. D.

Answer» Correct Answer - 2
4.

The rate of diffusion of two gases X and Y is in the ration of `1:5` and that of Y and Z in the ratio of `1:6`. The ratio of the rate of diffusion of Z with respecte to X is `:`A. `5//6`B. `1//30`C. `6//5`D. 30

Answer» Correct Answer - 4
5.

A uniform conducting ring of mass `pi` kg and radius 1 m is kept on smooth horizontal table. A uniform but time varying magnetic field `B = (hat (i) + t^(2) hat (j))T` is present in the region, where t is time in seconds. Resistance of ring is `2 (Omega)`. Then Heat generated (in kJ) through the ring till the instant when ring start toppling isA. `(1)/(3pi)kJ`B. `(2)/(pi)kJ`C. `(2)/(3pi)kJ`D. `(1)/(pi)kJ`

Answer» Correct Answer - C
Heat generated
`H=int_(0)^((10)/(pi))I^(2)Rdt=int_(0)^((10)/(pi))pi^(2)t^(2)xx2xxdt`
`=(2000)/(3pi)J=(2)/(3pi)kJ`
6.

Which of the following statement `(s)` is true `I-` Slpe of isotherm at critical point is maximum `II -` Larger is the value of `T_(C)` easier is the liquification of gas. `III-` Vander walls equation of state is applicable below critical temperature at all pressure.A. only 1B. `I & II`C. `II & III`D. only II

Answer» Correct Answer - 2
7.

A particle `A` is projected verically upwards. Another indentical particle `B` is projected at an angle of `45^(@)`. Both reach the same height. The ratio of the initial kinetic energy of `A` to that of `B` is `-`A. `1:2`B. `2:1`C. `1:sqrt2`D. `sqrt2:1`

Answer» Correct Answer - A
`v_(1)=(v_(2))/(sqrt2)rArr((1)/(2)mv_(1)^(2))/((1)/(2)mv_(2)^(2))=(1)/(2)`
8.

`CH_(2)=CH-CH_(2)-CH_(2)-C-=CH underset((1 eq))overset(HBr)to ` Product isA. `BrCH_(2)-CH_(2)-CH_(2)-CH_(2)-C-=CH`B. `CH_(2)=CH-CH_(2)-CH_(2)-CH=CH-Br`C. `CH_(2)=CH-CH_(2)-CH_(2)-underset(Br)underset(|)C=CH_(2)`D. `CH_(3)-underset(Br)underset(|)CH-CH_(2)-CH_(2)-C-=CH`

Answer» Correct Answer - D
9.

Choose the correct option regarding energy of empty orbitals. `{:(,n,l,m,s),((I),4,0,0,+(1)/(2)),((III),3,1,1,+(1)/(2)):}` ` {:(,n,l,m,s),((II),3,2,0,-(1)/(2)),((IV),3,0,0,-(1)/(2)):}`A. `I gt IV`B. `II lt I`C. `II lt III`D. `I = III`

Answer» Correct Answer - A
10.

Select the one which does not results in the formation of aromatic species .A. B. C. D.

Answer» Correct Answer - D
11.

The ratio of the wavelength of a proton & `alpha`-particle will be 1:2 if theirA. Velocity of proton to velocity of `alpha` is in ratio 1:8B. Velocity of proton of velocity of `alpha` particle is in the ratio 8:1C. Kinetic energy of proton to Kinetic energy of `alpha` particle is in the ratio 64:1D. Kinetic energy of proton to kinetic energy of `alpha` particle is in the ratio 26:1

Answer» Correct Answer - B
12.

Why does stitch pucker? What should be done to correct it?

Answer»

Puckering will mean that either the choice of the needle is not correct or there are too many stitches per inch. Adjust the tension of the machine and test till satisfied with the quality of the stitch

13.

A potential energy curve `U(x)` is shown in the figure. What value must the mechanical energy `E_(mec)` of the particle not exceed, if the particle is to be trapped within the region shown in graph? .A. `3J`B. `5J`C. `6J`D. `8J`

Answer» Correct Answer - C
14.

Differentiate between three types of rhythm.

Answer»
RegularFlowingProgressive
A design is governed by principle of regular rhythm when an element or a set of elements is repeated at regular intervals.It is defined as visual movement relates to continuance of an element used in design creation. This kind of visual rhythm is often more organic in nature.progressive rhythm encompasses visual sequencing of forms through progression of steps. This effect is often achieved by increasing or decreasing occurrence of design elements.

15.

`-N = O` group can showA. `+M` effectB. `-M` effectC. `-I` effectD. All of these

Answer» Correct Answer - D
16.

The potential energy of a body is given by `U=9/x^(2)-2/x` The position at which its speed can be maximum is.A. `x=+3 m`B. `x= -3 m`C. `x=9 m`D. `x=-9 m`

Answer» Correct Answer - C
17.

Write any three safety rules to be observed while working on sewing machine.

Answer»
  • Wipe up any oil spilled on the floor immediately to prevent anyone from slipping.
  •  Do not tilt your chair forward or backward while operating the machine.
  • Use both hands to raise and lower the machine head./ Always keep your head above the table.
  •  Keep your feet off the treadle when you are not operating the machine.
  • Keep your feet off the treadle when you are setting or threading the needle.
  • Turn the motor off when you are not stitching.
  • Turn the motor off before cleaning, oiling or adjusting the machine.
  • Turn the motor off before removing or replacing the pulley belt and run the machine out. Wait until all motion has stopped.
18.

The volume (in ml) of 0.5 M NaOH required for the complete reaction with 150 ml of 1.5M `H_(3)PO_(3)` solution isA. 1350B. 900C. 1250D. 1150

Answer» Correct Answer - B
19.

A split pin requires a force of 400N to shear it. The maximum shear occurs is 120MPa. Determine the minimum diameter of the pin

Answer»

Stress \(\sigma\) = \(\cfrac{forcce F}{area A}\) = hence, cross-sectional area, A = \(\cfrac{forcce F}{stress\,\sigma}\)

\(\cfrac{400}{120\times10^6}\) = 3.333 x 10-6 m2

Circular area = \(\pi\)r2 = 3.3333 x 10-6 m2

from which, r2\(\cfrac{3.3333 \times10^{-6}}\pi\) and radius r = \(\sqrt{\cfrac{3.3333 \times10^{-6}}\pi}\)

= 1.030 x 10-3 m = 1.030 mm

diameter d = 2 x r = 2 x 1.030 = 2.06 mm

20.

How is shape formed? What is a role of positive and negative space in a composition?

Answer»

The intersection or conjoining of one or more lines with other lines, forms an enclosed space thus creating a shape. A shape is an element of design which is defined by its closed contours or outline. 

In a composition, the filled or solid portion is called positive space while space around the positive space is called negative space.

21.

The simple lockstitch machine is also called a Flat-bed machine that makes only straight stitches. The stitch looks the same from both the sides & it is absolutely flat. If it breaks during use, it does not unravel because the two threads are locked together. This is the reason why it is also called a lockstitch. There are two types of such machines available in the market. Differentiate between two types of lockstitch machines.

Answer»

1. The power sewing machine is much faster as it stitches an average of 5000 stitches per minute. An average home sewing machine makes no more than 800 stitches while a hand sewing machine would stitch a maximum of 300 stitches per minute. 

2. The presser foot in a power machine is controlled with a knee lift, but in a home sewing machine it is operated manually using a lever at the back of needle bar. 

3. The throat plate in a home sewing machine is often marked with seam guides which an industry machine does not have. 

4. In the industrial sewing machine or power machine the presser foot has a narrow opening between the two toes and it holds fabric more securely and firmly. 

5. The industrial sewing machine or power machine has a small and round needle hole on the throat plate than the home sewing machine, which is large and oval. This reduces stitching problems.

22.

Oak, silver-birch, poplar, willow, ______. A) ashtray B) ash C) seed D) cork E) rubber

Answer»

Correct option is  B) ash

23.

A number is doubled and 9 is added. If the resultant is trebled it becomes 75. What is the number?1. 122. 103. 84. 14

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : 8

Given:

Double of number + 9 = resultant

Thrice of resultant = 75

Calculation:

Let the number be x

⇒ 2x + 9 = resultant 

3(2x + 9) = 75

⇒ 6x + 27 = 75 

⇒ 6x = 75 – 27

⇒ 6x = 48

⇒ x = 48/6

⇒ x = 8

∴ The number is 8

24.

The side of a square field is 16m what will be the increase in its area, if each of its sides is increased by 4m

Answer» Initial area of the square = side^2

=16^2 m^2

Enhanced area of the square = (16+4)^2 ^2

So increase in area is

= 20^2-16^2=400-256=144m^2
25.

When a yellow light of wavelength `6000Å` from a sodium lamp falls on a certain photocell, a negative potential of `0.30` volt is needed to stop all the electtons from reaching the collector. Then choose correct option (s)A. Work function of the given photocel is `25.5eV` approximatelyB. Work function of the given photocell is `1.8eV` approximatelyC. A negative potential of `0.6` Volt will be needed to stop all the electrons if light if of wavelength `lamda=4000Å` is usedD. A negative potential of `1.3` Volt will be needed to stop all the electrons if light of wavelength `lamda=4000Å` is used

Answer» Correct Answer - B::D
As we know that
`(hC)/(lamda)=phi+kimplies12400/(lamda)=phi+v_(s)`, where `phi` is in electron Volt and `lamda` is in `A`
When light of wavelenght `lamda=6000Å` is used
`12400/6000=phi+0.3impliesphi=1.77~~1.8eV` (approximately)
When light with wavelength `lamda=4000Å` is used
`12400/4000=phi+eV`
`implieseV=(3.1-1.8)e` volt `=1.3eV`
`impliesv=1.3` volt
26.

If `epsilon_(0), B, V` represent permitibvity of free space, magnitude of magnetic field and volume of space respectively, then the dimension of `epsilon_(0)B^(2)V` is `[M^(a)L^(b)T^(c)]`. Find `a+b+c`.

Answer» Correct Answer - 1
`epsilon_(0)VB^(2)-=(epsilonE^(2))/(v^(2))V [B-=E/v]`
`-=(u_(e))/(2v^(2))V-= ("Energy")/(("speed")^(2))-=` mass, so `a=1, b=0, c=0`
27.

Dimension of magnetic permeability is :A. `MLT^(2)A^(-2)`B. `ML^(-1)T^(-2)A^(-2)`C. `ML^(-2)T^(-2)A^(2)`D. `MLT^(2)A^(-2)`

Answer» Force per unit length between two parallel current carrying wires is given by
`(F)/(l)=(m_(0)I_(1)I_(2))/(2pd)`
`therefore[mu_(0)]=[(F)/(I^(2))]=[(MLT^(2))/(A^(2))]=[MLT^(2)A^(-2)]`
28.

In the figure Q is the contact point. If PQ = 12, PR = 8, then PS = ?

Answer»

By tangent secant theorem,

PQ2 = PS × PR 

122 = PS × 8 

PS = 144 / 8 

PS = 18

29.

i. On the basis of the extract, pick the opinion that is NOT TRUE about the theme of the poem.(1) A thing of beauty transcends timse and doesn't fade away.(2) Beauty doesn't dispel dakeness and is surrounded by evil(3) A thing of beauty is not only physical but spiritual as well.(4) A beautiful thing has a therapeutic quality and brings  in a ray of hope.a) Option 1b) Option 2 c) Option 3 d) Option 4ii. Pick the option that matches the words / phrases with the literary device.Word/phraseLiterary device1. simpel sheepA. imagery2. gloomy daysB. Metaphor3. Bower quietC. symbolismD. transferred epithta) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B b) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D c) 1-D, 2-B, 3-C d) 1-C, 2-A, 3-Biii. Pick the statement that contradicts the idea of beauty as expressed by the poet. a) People are beautiful not in looks but just in what they are. b) Beautiful people have known suffering, struggle and loss. c) We must think of all the beauty that is left around us and be happy. d) We must dwell on the beauty in life and be inspired by it.

Answer»

i.(b) 

ii. (a) 

iii. (b)

30.

Rich with a sprinkling of fair musk-rose blooms; And such too is the grandeur of the dooms We have imagined for the mighty dead; All lovely tales that we have heard or read; An endless fountain of immortal drink, Pouring unto us from the heaven’s brink. i. Pick the quote that matches best with— ‘And such too is the grandeur of the dooms we have imagined for the mighty dead.’ a) In the night of death, hope sees a star, and listening love can hear the rustle of a wing. b) When a great man dies, for years the light he leaves behind him, lies on the paths of men. c) Endings are not always bad, most times they’re just beginnings in disguise. d) Cowards die many times before their death; the valiant never taste of death but once. ii. Pick the option that refers to what ‘an endless fountain of immortal drink’ suggests. 1. inspirational deeds of great men 2. a ceaseless series of dreams 3. an infinite source of strength 4. an elixir of life for upliftment of the soul 5. an eternal source of delight 6. a boundless gift of love a) 1, 4 and 5 b) 2, 3 and 5 c) 1, 2 and 6 d) 2, 4 and 6 iii Pick the option that pairs the TRUE statements based on the extract, from the list below. 1. The bushes with fragrant flowers lift the human spirit and bring joy. 2. Death is inevitable and everyone faces it no matter how powerful. 3. Immortality is achieved by man when he drinks the nectar of joy. 4. Legendary heroes and their heroic deeds instil inspiration in us. a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 4 c) 1 and 4 d) 2 and 3 iv Pick the option that uses the same literary device as the ‘mighty dead’. a) sleepless nights b) deafening silence c) glaring lights d) time is a thief

Answer»

i.(b) 

ii. (a) 

iii. (c) 

iv. (b)

31.

The requirements of a digital radiography system are: a. Good X-ray sensitivity b. A small field size c. A digital-to-analogue converter (DAC) d. A narrow dynamic rangee. A locally based archive

Answer»

a. True. 

b. False. A large field size is required. 

c. False. As the image display is usually in a digital format (such as a liquid crystal display (LCD)), conversion back to an analogue signal is not required. 

d. False. A wide dynamic range is required to cover the range of exposures that will be necessary when performing a range of different examinations. 

e. True.

32.

Regarding the post-processing of digital radiography images: a. Irregular shading across the image field is an irreversible artefact b. Defective pixels within the matrix may not alter the final image quality c. The wide dynamic range of unprocessed data can result in loss of image quality d. Auto-ranging is operator dependent e. Auto-ranging improves spatial resolution

Answer»

a. False. This refers to the variation in X-ray sensitivity, which may occur across the detector and be seen in the resultant image. This can be adjusted using gain calibration (so is not irreversible). 

b. True. This is compensated for by a process known as flat-field calibration. However, if there are a significant number of defective pixels, then image quality/ accuracy may be compromised. 

c. True. If data are unprocessed, then the imaging display device may not be able to demonstrate the full range of intensities obtained. This is overcome by a process known as auto-ranging, which processes the data to display only the most important part of the response range relevant to the particular examination performed. 

d. False. It is an automatic process that is performed by software once details of the projection performed have been entered into the system, e.g. chest radio graph. 

e. False.

33.

Concerning picture archiving and communications systems (PACS): a. PACS eliminate the need for film storage b. Their correct use is guided by the Data Protection Act (1998) c. Primary diagnostic clinical interpretation generally should not be performed from any workstation d. Images cannot be accessed simultaneously from different locations e. Data compression can help reduce the storage requirements associated with PACS

Answer»

a. True. Although storage for hard-copy films is no longer required, it should be noted that data storage then becomes an issue. 

b. True. 

c. True. Reporting workstations usually have high-quality liquid crystal displays (LCDs), which are calibrated to the Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine (DICOM) standard for that imaging modality. Within the hospital, PACS may be accessed from any PC connected to PACS via the hospital network. As images may be displayed on standard PC monitors, then reporting should be avoided at these workstations (in addition, the viewing environment may not be optimal). 

d. False. They can, which is one of the main advantages of PACS over hard-copy images. 

e. True.

34.

Concerning digital enhancement: a. Digital enhancement may be operator-dependent b. Grey-scale modification can be used to improve spatial resolution c. Grey-scale modification uses a look-up table (LUT) technique d. Unsharp masking can help distinguish fine detail within the image e. Unsharp masking may increase noise

Answer»

a. True. This may be performed automatically based on the patient characteristics and the projection performed. It can also be manipulated directly by the operator. 

b. False. It can improve contrast and brightness within the image. 

c. True. 

d. True. It improves the spatial resolution within the image. 

e. True.

35.

Regarding the image associated with digital radiography: a. A good-quality image may amount to over 10 Mb of data b. Images of a smaller matrix size will tolerate greater compression than images with a larger matrix size c. An image detector based on a charge-coupled device (CCD) photo sensor is an alternative to the thin-film transistor d. Digital radiography uses smaller matrix sizes than are used in computed tomography e. The image may be saved as a JPEG

Answer»

a. True. With a typical digital matrix size of 3000 x 3000 and 2 bytes of data per pixel (at a minimum), then this is at least 18 Mb (matrix size x number of bytes) of data with a single image. 

b. False. The reverse is true. 

c. True. 

d. False. Digital radiography uses larger matrix sizes. 

e. True.

36.

Regarding colour flow imaging (CFI) and power Doppler imaging: a. Image acquisition in CFI is based on the continuous-wave Doppler b. CFI is not susceptible to aliasing c. On modern ultrasound equipment, the frame rate achieved in colour flow mode is the same as the frame rate in the corresponding pure B-mode imaging d. In power Doppler imaging, the sensitivity to motion is not dependent on the Doppler angle e. CFI is more susceptible to flash artefacts than power Doppler imaging

Answer»

a. False. CFI uses pulsed-wave Doppler acquisition. Multiple pulses are sent over multiple lines and Doppler shifts are obtained from multiple gates along these lines. Information is presented on a 2D map of flow usually superimposed on a B-mode picture, with colour-coded direction of flow. To speed up data acquisition and processing, phase-shift auto correlation or time domain correlation is used together with faster analysis algorithms. 

b. False. The same Nyquist criterion applies as with spectral pulsed-wave Doppler imaging. 

c. False. The frame rate in CFI is always lower than in pure B-mode imaging, as multiple pulses (typically 2–20) are sent for each scan line. The Doppler pulses will also need to be interleaved with B-mode imaging pulses, further decreasing the frame rate. 

d. True. Power Doppler (energy Doppler) imaging ignores information about the direction and velocity of flow and displays information dependent only on the flow amplitude. This does not change significantly with the angle of insonation. 

e. False. As the name implies, flash artefacts are bursts of signal resulting from the motion of tissue. As power Doppler imaging is more sensitive to motion, flash artefacts are more likely to occur.

37.

Concerning the display of digital images: a. The cathode ray tube is dependent on a scanning photon beam b. Over time, cathode ray tubes reliably maintain image quality c. Liquid crystal displays (LCDs) exploit variations in light polarization within the crystal for image visualization d. Once the image is digitized, it is not possible to view it as a hard copy e. Image reproduction is less reliable with flat-panel monitors than with cathode ray tubes 

Answer»

a. False. It is a scanning electron beam, which is directed at a phosphor, which produces the visible image. The intensity of the beam is varied, depending on the input of the signal. 

b. False. After prolonged use, the image quality degrades, e.g. loss of contrast and problems with the phosphor. 

c. True. The crystals vary in their degree of polarization when a voltage is placed across them. Each pixel can therefore be manipulated to vary the level of light transmission depending on the input of the signal to that pixel. The resultant image is a summation of all of the pixels. 

d. False. A hard copy may still be obtained using a laser hardware image.

e. False. 

38.

Regarding aliasing in pulsed-wave Doppler imaging: a. It occurs when the Doppler shift frequency exceeds 2 PRF (pulse repetition frequency) b. It limits the range of velocities than can accurately be measured to 1.5–2m s-1 c. The risk of aliasing is higher at higher Doppler frequencies d. It can be reduced by using a higher PRF, lowering the frequency or increasing the angle of insonation e. The problem of aliasing can partially be overcome by using a high PRF mode

Answer»

a. False. According to the Nyquist criterion, the waveform measured (shift frequency in this case) needs to be sampled at least twice in each period (time between pulses). Therefore, aliasing occurs when the Doppler shift exceeds half of the sampling frequency (PRF), not double. 

b. True. 

c. True. At higher frequencies, the Doppler shift (which is proportional to frequency) will be larger and more likely to exceed 0.5 PRF. 

d. True. At higher PRF, the Doppler shift that can be measured without aliasing is proportionately higher. Lowering the frequency or increasing the angle of insonation decreases the Doppler shift frequency, so it is less likely to exceed the Nyquist criterion. 

e. True. In this mode, the next Doppler pulse is sent before the echo from the previous pulse is received. This allows measuring of higher flow velocities, but introduces range ambiguity (loss of range resolution).

39.

Which of the following are true regarding opposed-phase imaging? a. It is most commonly used with gradient-echo sequences b. In a 1.5 T magnet, the magnetization of fat and water becomes out of phase every 220 ms c. A gradient echo obtained with a TE of 6.9 ms at 1.5 T would represent a summation of signals from fat and water d. The most common application of out-of-phase imaging is in the diagnosis of hepatic and adrenal lesions e. Out-of-phase images show a characteristic ‘India ink’ appearance

Answer»

a. True. It relies on the phase differences arising due to different resonance frequencies of water and fat. The echo time (TE) is chosen such that the echo forms when the water and fat signals have a 180° phase difference between them. In standard spin-echo sequences, these phase differences would be eliminated by the 180° refocusing pulse. 

b. False. The difference in Larmor frequency between fat and water at 1.5 T is approximately 220 Hz. Fat and water will therefore be in phase at every multiple of 1000/220 = 4.6 ms (i.e. at 4.6, 9.2, 13.8 ms, etc.). Hence, they will be out of phase mid-way between these time points (i.e. at 2.3, 6.9, 11.5 ms etc.). 

c. False. At this time point, fat and water are out of phase, so the resulting signal would represent the difference in the fat and water magnetizations in that voxel. 

d. True. Fatty lesions of these organs that contain both fat and water will show signal hypointensity on the out-of-phase images in comparison with the corresponding in-phase images. 

e. True. At interfaces where voxels contain both water and fat, in the out-of-phase images the magnetization cancels, resulting in a one-voxel thin black line as if drawn with ink.

40.

Observe the model and fill the blank represented as A. Model :

Answer» A - Trypsin.
41.

Local rules might include: a. Identification of who is permitted to operate the equipment b. Identification of who can refer a patient for X-ray c. Identification of those who may remain in the controlled area d. Setting the dose limit for controlled and supervised areas e. Notifying the authority if the wrong patient is radiated

Answer»

a. True. 

b. False. Identification of the referrer is a part of the IRMER 

c. True. 

d. False. Local rules include the description of controlled and supervised areas, not the dose limit. 

e. False. This is covered under the IRMER.

42.

Correct mistakes, if any, in the underlined part of the following statements.(a) A dark band and half of the light band on either side of it constitute a Sarcomere.(b) Muscular fatigue is the condition that occurs due to

Answer»

(a) Muscular fatigue is the condition that occurs due to the accumulation of lactic acid which is formed as a result of anaerobic respiration in the muscles.

43.

Analyse the given statements related to tissue fluid and lymph and select the correct one from the options. (a) Tissue fluid is the fluid formed by oozing of blood plasma into the intercellular space. (b) 7% of CO2 formed in our body is expelled through plasma. (c) Lymph is the fluid produced by the lymph nodes. (d) Lymph is the tissue fluid that has entered the lymph capillaries. A : b, d correct B : a, b correct C : a, d correct D : b, c correct

Answer»

 Correct option (c) a, d are correct

44.

Complete the flow chart related to the structure of muscle.The accumulation of Carbonic acid which is formed as a result of anaerobic respiration in the muscles.

Answer»

(a) Myofilament

(b) Fascicle

45.

Regarding nuclear magnetic resonance imaging (MRI): a. In an external magnetic field, more hydrogen nuclei align with their magnetic moments parallel to the external field than antiparallel b. Protons subject to a strong static external magnetic field start to precess in phase c. The frequency of precession (Larmor frequency) of protons in a static magnetic field of 1.5 T equals 42.6 MHz d. At 1.5 T, the precessional frequency of hydrogen nuclei in fat is 220 Hz lower than that of hydrogen nuclei in water e. Apart from hydrogen, other nuclei that can be polarized in an external magnetic field include carbon 12C and oxygen 16O

Answer»

a. True. Slightly more hydrogen nuclei align parallel (‘spin up’) than antiparallel (‘spin down’), giving rise to the net longitudinal magnetization MZ. The difference between protons with parallel and antiparallel alignment is only 3 per million in a 1 T static magnetic field. This can be increased using special techniques (hyper polarization). 

b. False. Protons align with the external field, but precess with different phases, cancelling each other’s transverse magnetization. Therefore, the resulting net transverse magnetization (MXY) is zero. Their phases are synchronized (‘phase coherence’) by an external 90° radio frequency pulse whose frequency is equal to the Larmor frequency. 

c. False. This is the precessional frequency in a 1 T magnetic field. At 1.5 T, it would be proportionally higher, i.e. 63.9 MHz. 

d. True. This is called chemical shift and is utilized in some fat saturation techniques and opposed-phase imaging. 

e. False. Nuclear magnetic resonance is a property of nuclei with odd numbers of protons and/or neutrons (e.g. 13C). Nuclei with even numbers of protons and neutrons have a zero net magnetic moment and cannot be polarized.

46.

Regarding workers and dose limits: a. The dose limit for carers is the same as for the public b. Trainees under the age of 18 must not receive an effective dose of more than 6 Sv c. Workers must be designated as classified if their annual dose limit exceeds 20 mSv d. Classified workers must be over 18 years of age e. It is mandatory to monitor the dose of all staff members who work with radiation

Answer»

a. False. The IRR99 permits the dose limit to be relaxed for carers who are willingly exposed to doses higher than the limits set for the public. 

b. False. A non-classified worker (trainee) under the age of 18 should not receive a dose more than 6 mSv, not 6 Sv. Millisieverts (mSv) is commonly used to measure the effective dose in diagnostic medical procedures (1 mSv = 103 Sv). 

c. False. Workers are designated as classified if their annual dose limit exceeds 6 mSv. The effective dose limit for classified workers is 20 mSv. 

d. True. Classified workers must be over 18 years of age and certified as being medically fit, prior to employment, to work as a classified person. 

e. False. The IRR99 makes it mandatory to monitor the dose of classified workers only. In practice, the employer monitors the majority of staff working in a controlled area to monitor and keep dose limits within acceptable limits.

47.

The head of the Joint Hindu Family business is called. (a) Proprietor (b) Director (c) Karta (d) Manager

Answer»

The head of the Joint Hindu Family business is called Karta.

48.

It is not formed by an agreement or by a contract. But it comes into existence by the operation of Hindu law. Name the type of business organisation.

Answer»

Hindu Undivided Family (HUF)

49.

I pride myself _____ the fact that I read two or three books a week. A) in B) at C) on D) for

Answer»

Correct option is C) on

50.

Registration of a partnership is ………

Answer»

Registration of a partnership is Optional.