Explore topic-wise InterviewSolutions in Current Affairs.

This section includes 7 InterviewSolutions, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Current Affairs knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

Most of the Upanishads seem to have been composed by whom? (a) Brahmins (b) Kshatriyas (c) Buddhists (d) Non-aryans

Answer»

(b) Kshatriyas 

2.

Who wrote a book ‘Return of the Aryans’ ? (a) Bhagvan Das Gidvani (b) L.D. Kalla (c) Avinash Chandra Das (d) D.S. Trivedi

Answer»

(a) The book ‘Return of the Aryans’ was written by Bhagvan S. Gidvani. This book tells the epic story of the Aryans – a gripping tale of kings and poets, seers and gods, battles and romance and the rise and fall of civilizations.

3.

The expounder of Yoga philosophy was : (a) Patanjali (b) Shankaracharya (c) Jaimini (d) Gautam

Answer»

(a) The ancient Sage Patanjali was an expounder of the Yoga Sutras one of the most important text of yoga covering all aspects of life. Patanjali’s Yoga Sutras describe the working of the mind and emotions.

4.

Which of the following Brahmana texts belongs to Atharvaveda? (a) Shatpatha (b) Aitareya (c) Gopatha (d) Panchavinsh

Answer»

(c) The Gopatha Brahmana is the only Brahmana, a genre of the prose texts describing the Vedic rituals, associated with the Atharvaveda.

5.

Which of the following is not one of the reasons why the northern mountains are of great importance to India (a) They protect the country from invasion (b) They influence the climate (c) They provide water to the plains (d) They possess valuable vegetation and animal life

Answer»

(a) They protect the country from invasion 

6.

Which of the following statements about the Himalayan rivers is not correct? (a) They have very large basins (b) Many of them pass through giant gorges (c) They perform very little erosion activity (d) Over the plain they display a strong meandering tendency and often shift their beds

Answer»

(c) They perform very little erosion activity

7.

Shri Tripuraneni Hanuman Chowdary was awarded the 'Padma Shri' under which of the below mentioned categories?1. Science and Technology2. Arts3. Literature and Education4. Civil Service

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : Science and Technology

The correct answer is Science and Technology.

  • Dr Tripuraneni Hanuman Chowdary has received Padma Shri, the fourth highest civilian award in India, who had contributed the most to the telecom revolution and IT development in the country.
  • Founder of the Center for Telecommunications Management and Studies (CTMS), Dr Chowdary, popularly known as T H Chowdhary, currently serves as a non-executive independent director at Softsol India Ltd.
  • He was the founding CMD of Videsh Sanchar Nigam Limited (VSNL), Advisor to TCS and IT advisor to the Government of Andhra Pradesh. He is Chairman of Pragna Bharthi of Andhra Pradesh.
  • He was the man who initiated a restructuring of the Department of Telecommunications (DoT).

  • Padma Shri
    • Padma Shri, also spelt Padma Shree, is the fourth-highest civilian award in the Republic of India, after the Bharat Ratna, the Padma Vibhushan and the Padma Bhushan.
    • It is awarded by the Government of India every year on India's Republic Day.
  • Padma Awards: 
    • Padma Vibhushan- Awarded for exceptional and distinguished service.
    • Padma Bhushan- Awarded for distinguished service of a high order.
    • Padma Shri- Awarded for distinguished service in any field.
8.

What amount is earmarked by the Government of Andhra Pradesh in the Budget 2017-18 for redemption of debts of farmers in 2017-18?1. Rs. 2,500 crores2. Rs. 3,200 crores3. Rs. 3,600 crores4. Rs. 4,000 crores

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Rs. 3,600 crores

The correct answer is Rs. 3,600 crores.

  • The Finance Minister of Andhra Pradesh, Mr Yanamala Ramakrishnudu, presented the Budget for Andhra Pradesh for the financial year 2017-18 on March 15, 2017.
  • Despite the State inheriting a huge revenue deficit, the Government stood by its commitment, disbursed Rs. 11,000 crore to 55 lakh farmer accounts to date.
  • This is a defining moment as no Government in the country have ever embarked on loan redemption of such magnitude regardless of the economics of this socially relevant measure under difficult and harsh circumstances.
  • The government is proposing Rs. 3,600 crore in the current budget of 2017-18 for the next instalment of debt redemption for farmers.

  • Budget Highlights
    • Total expenditure for 2017-18 is estimated to be Rs 1,56,999 crore, an 18.3% increase over the revised estimate of 2016-17.
      • In 2016-17, there was a decrease of Rs 2,925 crore (2.2%) in the revised estimate over the budget estimate.
    • Total receipts (excluding borrowings) for 2017-18 are estimated to be Rs 1,26,968 crore, an increase of 17.9% over the revised estimates of 2016-17. In 2016-17, total receipts fell short of the budgeted target by Rs 2,859 crore.
    • The revenue deficit for the next financial year was targeted at Rs 416 crore.
      • The fiscal deficit was targeted at Rs 23,054 crore.
      • The primary deficit was targeted at Rs 8,272 crore
9.

He set up Empress Mill in Nagpur in 1874. Before that in 1868, he turned a bankrupt oil mill into a profitable cotton mill called Alexandria. Alumnus of Elphinstone College, he passed away in 1904. Name the legend

Answer»

Jamshedji Tata

10.

Which of the following is a trans-Himalayan river?(a) Ganga (b) Yamuna (c) Sutlej (d) Ravi

Answer»

Sutlej is a trans-Himalayan river.

11.

As per Andhra Pradesh Budget 2017-18, what is the share of Andhra Pradesh in the seafood exports of the country?1. 55%2. 45%3. 35%4. 25%

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : 45%

The correct answer is 45%.

  • The Finance Minister of Andhra Pradesh, Mr Yanamala Ramakrishnudu, presented the Budget for Andhra Pradesh for the financial year 2017-18 on March 15, 2017.
  • As per Andhra Pradesh Budget 2017-18, 45% is the share of Andhra Pradesh in the seafood exports of the country.​
  • The fisheries sector is playing a vital role as the chief source of protein-rich food, employment and income generation to a large section of people.
  • Its contribution to GSDP is substantial at 6.78%. 
  • The Sunrise State of Andhra Pradesh is considered Aqua Hub of India, contributing nearly 70% of total cultured prawn production besides having a lion’s share of 45% in total seafood exports of the country.
  • It stood first in the country for the last three years both in production and value.
  • It recorded a growth of 22.06% on the production front and 30.09% on GVA during the year 2016-17.
  • The State recorded production of 27.58 lakh tonnes with GVA of Rs. 43,538  crore during 2016-17.

  • Budget Highlights
    • Total expenditure for 2017-18 is estimated to be Rs 1,56,999 crore, an 18.3% increase over the revised estimate of 2016-17.
      • In 2016-17, there was a decrease of Rs 2,925 crore (2.2%) in the revised estimate over the budget estimate.
    • Total receipts (excluding borrowings) for 2017-18 are estimated to be Rs 1,26,968 crore, an increase of 17.9% over the revised estimates of 2016-17. In 2016-17, total receipts fell short of the budgeted target by Rs 2,859 crore.
    • The revenue deficit for the next financial year is targeted at Rs 416 crore.
      • The fiscal deficit is targeted at Rs 23,054 crore.
      • The primary deficit is targeted at Rs 8,272 crore
12.

Dantidurga. Krishna I, Dhruva, Govinda III. Amoghavarsha, Krishna III. The Kailasha Temple at Ellora. Mankhed near Sholapur was their capital. Name the lineage.

Answer»

Rashtrakutas

13.

India shares its border with China along the Himalayan range. Which of the following states touches the border of China? (a) Punjab (b) Bihar (c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Chhattisgarh (e) All of these 

Answer»

(c) Arunachal Pradesh

14.

Which of the following States declared all the cities and towns as open defecation free on 2nd October, 2016?1. Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh2. Karnataka and Delhi3. Goa and Maharashtra4. Kerala and Goa

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh

The correct answer is Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh.

  • Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh became the first states to declare their urban areas as Open Defecation Free (ODF) on the second anniversary of the Swachh Bharat Mission.
  • All 110 cities and towns in Andhra Pradesh were given the ODF tag by Chief Minister N Chandrababu Naidu at an event in Tirupati, while Gujarat gave ODF status to each of its 180 cities and towns at a function in Porbandar attended by Union Minister of Drinking Water and Sanitation Narendra Singh Tomar and Gujarat Chief Minister Vijay Rupani.

  • Union Jal Shakti Ministry’s Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation (DDWS) has launched a 10-year national rural sanitation strategy to sustain India’s 100 per cent Open Defecation Free (ODF).
  • Focus:
    • The framework, to be in place from 2019 to 2029, will ensure that people sustain their usage of toilets.
    • It will also focus on the proper implementation of solid and liquid waste management (SLWM) — plastic waste, organic waste, grey water, and faecal sludge — in rural areas.
  • The strategy:
    • They include the retrofitting of single pit toilets to twin pits or making provisions to empty pits every five years, repair of defunct ones, and construction of soak pits for septic tanks wherever not already present.
    • A district-level training management unit (TMU) will be set up to provide oversight and support to gram panchayats (GPs) so that they ensure the operation and maintenance of sanitation infrastructure.
    • The gram panchayats (GPs) are also supposed to conduct a rapid assessment of water and sanitation gaps.
    • Alternative funding: Government funding is the primary source of financing in the sanitation sector. Alternative self-financing by gradual leveraging of community resources in the form of tariffs for ODF plus activities is also suggested.
    • It will follow the same 60:40 financing model as being followed till now in Swachh Bharat. It will be finalised after the cabinet’s approval.
    • The framework also talks about state-specific strategies on menstrual hygiene management, including menstrual waste management, which may be supported under the ODF plus strategy.
15.

Nathu La a place where India China border trade has been resumed after 44 years is located on the Indian border in (a) Sikkim (b) Arunachal Pradesh (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Jammu andKashmir 

Answer»

Nathu La a place where India China border trade has been resumed after 44 years is located on the Indian border in Sikkim.

16.

As per Health Policy, 2017 approved by the Union Cabinet recently, what was the expected amount of public health expenditure as a percentage of GDP?1. 5.5%2. 4.5%3. 3.5%4. 2.5%

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : 2.5%

The correct answer is 2.5%.

  • National Health Policy 2017
    • The broad principles of the Policy are centred on professionalism, integrity and ethics, equity, affordability, universality, patient-centered and quality of care, accountability, and pluralism.
    • It aims to achieve universal access to good quality health care services without anyone having to face financial hardship as a consequence.
    • It intends to gradually increase public health expenditure to 2.5% of the GDP.
    • It proposes free drugs, free diagnostics, and free emergency and essential healthcare services in public hospitals.
    • The policy advocates allocating two-thirds of resources to primary care.
    • It proposes two beds per 1,000 of the population to enable access within the first 60 minutes after a traumatic injury.
    • To reduce morbidity and preventable mortality of non-communicable diseases (NCDs) by advocating pre-screening.
    • It highlights AYUSH as a tool for effective prevention and therapy that is safe and cost-effective.
    • It proposes introducing Yoga in more schools and offices to promote good health.
    • It also proposed reforming medical education.​

  • What are the key targets?
    • Increase Life Expectancy at birth from 67.5 to 70 by 2025.
    • Reduce Fertility Rate to 2.1 by 2025.
    • Reduce Infant Mortality Rate to 28 by 2019.
    • Reduce Under Five Mortality to 23 by 2025.
    • Achieve the global 2020 HIV target (also termed 90:90:90 global target).
    • To reduce premature mortality from cardiovascular diseases, cancer, diabetes or chronic respiratory diseases by 25 per cent by 2025.
    • Reducing the prevalence of blindness to 0.25 per 1000 persons by 2025.
    • The disease burden to be reduced by one-third from the current levels.
    • Elimination of leprosy by 2018, kala-azar by 2017, and lymphatic filariasis in endemic pockets by 2017.
17.

Discuss the relations between state and non-state actors in developing countries

Answer»

State Actors are the states or governments of the countries. Non-State Actors are groups or individuals who have the potential to influence the activities of the state actors. State actors primarily comprise of states.

State actors represent a government while non-state actors do not. However, they have impact on the state actors.

18.

The political scene is the mass of many parties.how do politicans manage these coalition?give your opinion

Answer»

1. With the mushrooming of political parties, it has now become difficult in the indian political scenario, for any particular party to garner majority of seats to from the government.

2. In such a case, several political parties with almost similar agenda come together to form a government and if voted to power, all such parties as a coalition from the government.

3. Generally, all the major decision making is done by biggest party in the coalition, like that of BJP in the general election of 2014.

4. Ministries are allotted keeping in mind all the members of coalition.

5. Though at times difficult to manage, such system allows a assortment of interests and opinions for political representation.

19.

Discuss the importance of Recruitment.

Answer»

Recruitment is the process of having the right person, in the right place, at the right time. It is crucial to organisational performance. Recruitment is the first step in an organisation’s Human Resource Planning. It fulfills the organisation’s need of a set of competitive, motivated and flexible employees who work towards achieving the organisation’s objectives.

Competent Human Resources at the right positions are crucial for the organisation and constitute core competency. Recruitment helps in creating a pool of prospective employees for the organisation, so that the right candidates for the right jobs can be selected from this pool. It establishes a link between the job seekers and employers.

Proper recruitment enables the organisation to appoint talented persons for various activities, thereby leading to improved productivity and profitability of the organisation. Unless a company adopts a suitable recruitment policy, it may not be possible for a company to have right candidates for right job.

20.

The internal source of recruitment are ………….. (i) promotion (ii) e-recruitment (iii) retention (iv) advertisements(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)

Answer»

(b) (i) and (iii)

21.

…….. enables small investors to participate in the investment on share capital of large companies. (a) Mutual Funds (b) Shares (c) Debentures (d) Fixed deposits

Answer»

(a) Mutual Funds

22.

……… e-recruitment is possible only through facility.(a) Computer (b) internet (c) Broadband (d) 4G

Answer»

internet e-recruitment is possible only through facility.

23.

Case study method is type of trainee. (a) Only theoretical training (b) Both theory and practical training(c) Hands on training (d) Observation Training

Answer»

(b) Both theory and practical training

24.

Which of the following is not consumer right summed up by John F. Kennedy (a) Right to safety (b) Right to choose (c) Right’to consume (d) Right to he informed

Answer»

(a) Right to safety

25.

Identify the test that acts as an instrument to discover the inherent ability of a candidate. (a) Aptitude Test (b) Attitude Test (c) Proficiency Test (d) Physical Test

Answer»

(a) Aptitude Test

26.

The Consumer protection Act came into force with effect from …………… (a) 1.1. 1986 (b) 1.4.1986 (c) 15.4. 1987 (d) 15.4.1990

Answer»

The Consumer protection Act came into force with effect from 15.4. 1987.

27.

निम्नलिखितेषु मौखिकपरीक्षा अस्ति -1. शलाकापरीक्षा2. निबन्धरूपपरीक्षा3. कथालेखनपरीक्षा4. श्लोकलेखनपरीक्षा5.

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : शलाकापरीक्षा

प्रश्न अनुवाद - निम्नलिखित में से मौखिक परीक्षा है - 

स्पष्टीकरण -

  • किसी क्षेत्र में छात्रों की उपलब्धि अथवा योग्यता की जाँच के लिए जो प्रक्रिया प्रयुक्त की जाती है, उसे परीक्षा कहते हैं।
  • वर्तमान समय में छात्रों की उपलब्धि ज्ञात करने के लिए तीन प्रकार की परीक्षाओं का आयोजन किया जाता है, जो कि हैं- लिखित परीक्षा, मौखिक परीक्षा, प्रायोगिक परीक्षा
  • मौखिक परीक्षा में छात्रों से प्रश्न पूछे जाते है और छात्रों को उन प्रश्नों के उत्तर बोलकर (मौखिक) रूप से देने होते हैं। मौखिक परीक्षा में समय और प्रश्नों की कोई पाबंदी नहीं होती। छात्र प्रश्नों के उत्तर सोच कर दे सकते हैं। मौखिक परीक्षा में अध्यापक छात्रों से मौखिक रूप से प्रश्न करके उनके ज्ञान, अभिव्यक्ति की क्षमता और उनके आत्मविश्वास को परखते हैं।
  • प्राचीन गुरुकुलीय शिक्षा व्यवस्था में छात्र जब किसी शास्त्र को सम्यक् रूप से जान लेता था, तब उसके मूल्यांकन के लिए आचार्य  शलाका परीक्षा का आयोजन करते थे।
  • शलाका का अर्थ होता है - एक प्रकार की पतली छोटी सी छड़ी। जिस ग्रन्थ की परीक्षा ली जानी होती थी, उसे छात्र के सम्मुख रख कर शलाका उस ग्रन्थ के बीच में कही भी रख दी जाती थी। जिस पृष्ठ पर वह शलाका रखी जाती थी, वहीं से छात्र को ग्रन्थ में लिखी विषय वस्तु यथावत् स्मृति के आधार पर सुनानी प्रारम्भ करते हुए तब तक निरंतर उच्चारण जारी रखनी होती है, जब तक आचार्य उसे रोक न दे।

 

अतः स्पष्ट है कि शलाका परीक्षा मौखिक परीक्षा है।

अन्य विकल्प -

  • निबन्धरूपपरीक्षा - यह परीक्षा मुख्यतया लिखित रूप में होती है। जहाँ किसी विषय पर छात्रों को निबन्ध लिखना होता है या किसी मुक्त प्रश्न का विस्तृत उत्तर देना होता है।
  • कथालेखनपरीक्षा - यह परीक्षा भी लेखन से सम्बन्धित है, जिसमें छात्र को किसी कहानी को लिखना होता है।
  • श्लोकलेखनपरीक्षा - इसमें छात्रों को श्लोकों को लिखना होता है। वे श्लोकों को स्मरण करके लिखते हैं। (इस तरह ये तीनों ही लिखित परीक्षा से सम्बन्धित है।)
28.

Effective use of Social media marketing increase conversion rates of …………….. (a) Customer to buyers (b) Retailer to customers (c) One buyer to another buyer’s (d) Direct contact of marketer

Answer»

(a) Customer to buyers

29.

Marketing mix means a marketing program that is offered by a firm to to its target ………….. to earn profits through satisfaction of their wants. (a) Wholesaler (b) Retailer (c) Consumer (d) Seller

Answer»

Correct Answer is : (c) Consumer

30.

Stock Exchange Market is also called ………….. (a) Spot Market (b) Local Market (c) Security Market (d) National Market

Answer»

Stock Exchange Market is also called Security Market.

31.

Which of the following is not a part the Macro Environment? a. Laws & Policies b. Demographics c. Suppliers d. Social Values

Answer»

Suppliers is not a part the Macro Environment.

32.

When trainees are trained by supervisor or by superior at the job is called ………….. (a) Vestibule training (b) Refresher training (c) Role Pay (d) Apprenticeship training

Answer»

(d) Apprenticeship training

33.

Cultural values would be part of which of the following factor in macro environment? a. Demographic b. Social c. Ecological d. Natural

Answer»

Cultural values would be part of Social factor in macro environment.

34.

What do Cash Cows symbolize in BCG matrix? a. Remain Diversied b. Invest c. Stable d. Liquidate

Answer»

Stable do Cash Cows symbolize in BCG matrix.

35.

What does Question Mark (?) symbolize in BCG matrix? a. Remain Diversied b. Investc. Stable d. Liquidate 

Answer»

a. Remain Diversied

36.

What does Dog symbolize in BCG matrix?a. Introduction b. Growth c. Maturityd. Decline

Answer»

Decline does Dog symbolize in BCG matrix.

37.

What does Green symbolize in BCG matrix? a. Invest & Expand b. Select & Earn c. Harvest & Divest d. Both a & b

Answer»

a. Invest & Expand

38.

What does Yellow symbolize in BCG matrix? a. Invest & Expand b. Harvest & Divest c. Select & Earn d. Both a & b

Answer»

c. Select & Earn

39.

The GE 9 cell model is based on _____________

Answer»

Answer: Industry attractiveness & Business Strength

40.

Another name for GE 9 cell model is a. Three colour matrix b. Stop light matrix c. Strategic Portfolio Matrixd. Colour light matrix

Answer»

Another name for GE 9 cell model is Stop light matrix.

41.

Organization structure primarily refers to a. how activities are coordinated & controlled b. how resources are allocated c. the location of departments and oce space d. the policy statements developed by the rm

Answer»

a. how activities are coordinated & controlled

42.

The purpose of job enrichment is to a. expand the number of tasks an individual can do b. increase job eciency c. increase job eectiveness d. increase job satisfaction of middle management

Answer»

b. increase job eciency

43.

What details need to be provided on the pay slip?

Answer»

Individual pay slips or wage slips should have the details of wage payments like work ID, wage rate, number of days worked, amount earned by the worker during the week, number of mandays completed per HH and number of mandays of employment due to the households concerned etc.

44.

Explain "Money is not the only motivator" in context of motivation of employees of an organisation.

Answer» "Money is not the only motivator." This statement is true in this context that an individual has certain psychological, emotional and social needs. Money cannot satisfy them.
In order to satisfy these needs, following non-financial incentives are required
(i) Promotion If an individual gets promotion in the organisation, it satisfies him psychologically as he gets a feeling that his hardwork is recognised.
(ii) Job security Every individual needs stability in terms of future income, job, etc. If their job is secure, they do not feel worried and work with greater zeal.
(iii) Employee participation It means involving employees in decision-making process. This kind of programmes motivate employees and they feel that their suggestions are of worth.
(iv) Employee recognition programmes It means acknowledgment for participation. If an employee has performed well then a certificate or momentum should be presented to him. This will motivate him to perform better in future also.
45.

Motivation includes a) job enrichment b) Job rotation c) Job enlargement d) all of the above

Answer»

d) all of the above

46.

“The combination of characteristics or qualities that form an individual’s distinctive character” is the denition of a) Personality b) Motivation c) Attitude d) behaviour

Answer»

The combination of characteristics or qualities that form an individual’s distinctive character” is the denition of Personality.

47.

Psychological process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in order to give meaning to their environment is definition of a) Attitude b) thinking c) Perception d) Personality

Answer»

Psychological process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in order to give meaning to their environment is definition of Perception.

48.

MBTI stands for a) Myers- Briggs Test indicator b) Myers- Briggs Test investigator c) Myers- Briggs Type indicator d) Myers- Briggs Type investigator

Answer»

c) Myers- Briggs Type indicator

49.

As per MBTI _____ personality people work based on hunches and feelings, use their imagination, and get the main idea while missing some of the facts. a) Introversion b) Sensing c) Intuition d) Thinking

Answer»

As per MBTI Intuition personality people work based on hunches and feelings, use their imagination, and get the main idea while missing some of the facts.

50.

The attitude based on the concept that “every individual will have an Intention to react in a certain way toward something is “ under ____________ component of Attitude. a) Behavioral b) Cognitive c) Aective d) Positive

Answer»

 a) Behavioral