Explore topic-wise InterviewSolutions in Current Affairs.

This section includes 7 InterviewSolutions, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Current Affairs knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

Which one of the following reactions of xenon compounds is not feasible?(a) 3XeF4 + 6H2O → 2Xe + XeO3 +12HF +1.5O2(b) 2XeF2 + 2H2O→2Xe + 4HF + O2(c) XeF6 +RbF→Rb[XeF7 ](d) XeO3 + 6HF→XeF6 + 3H2O

Answer»

(d) The products of the concerned reaction react each other forming back the reactants. 

XeF6 +3H2O →XeO3 +6HF .

2.

A compound is formed by two elements M and N. The element N forms ccp and atoms of M occupy 1/3rd of tetrahedral voids. What is the formula of the compound? 

Answer»

The ccp lattice is formed by the atoms of the element N.

Here, the number of tetrahedral voids generated is equal to twice the number of atoms of the element N.

According to the question, the atoms of element M occupy 1/3rdof the tetrahedral voids.

Therefore, the number of atoms of M is equal to 2x1/3 = 2/3rd of the number of atoms of N.

Therefore, ratio of the number of atoms of M to that of N is M: N =2/3: 1 = 2 : 3

Thus, the formula of the compound is M2N3.

3.

The tetrahedral voids formed by ccp arrangement of `CI^(-)` ions in rock salt structure areA. occupied by `Na^(+)` onlyB. occupied by `Cl^(-)`C. occupied by either `Na^(+)` or `Cl^(-)`D. neither occupied by `Na^(+)` nor `Cl^(-)`

Answer» Correct Answer - D
`Na^(+)` occpies octahedral voids formed by close packing of `Cl^(-)` in ccp in which all tetrahedral voids are vacant.
4.

If resistance `S` in `RB=300Omega`, then the balanced length is found to be `25.0 cm` from end `A`. The diameter of unknown wire is `1mm` and length of the unknown wire is `3.14cm`. The specific resistivity of the wire should be A. `2.5xx10^(-4)Omega-m`B. `3.5xx10^(-4)Omega-m`C. `4.5xx10^(-4)Omega-m`D. `1.5xx10^(-4)Omega-m`

Answer» Correct Answer - A
`(R)/(300)=(25)/(75)impliesR=100`,
`p=(Rpid^(2))/(4L)=2.5xx10^(-4)Omega-m`
5.

In the previous question, if `R` and `S` are interchanged, balanced point is shifted by A. `30 cm`B. `40 cm`C. `50 cm`D. `20 cm`

Answer» Correct Answer - C
If `R` and `S` wave interchanged,
`{:(l=75,100-l=25):}`
Balance point will be shifited by `5-25=50cm`
6.

एसीटोन के CH3MgBr से अभिक्रिया तत्पश्चात जल अपघटन से प्राप्त होता हA. प्राथमिक अल्कोहलB. दिंतीयक अल्कोहलC. तृतीयक अल्कोहलD. इनमे से कोई भी नहीं

Answer» Correct Answer - C
7.

Shown in the figure below is a meter- bridge set up will null deflection in the galvanometer. The value of the unknown resistor R isA. `110Omega`B. `55Omega`C. `13.75Omega`D. `220Omega`

Answer» Correct Answer - D
For a balanced meter bridge (null deflection).
`(55)/(R )=(20)/(80)`
8.

फिनॉल का अधिकतर उत्पादन किया जाता है होता हैA. बेंजीन डाअज़ोनियम क्लोराइडB. क्यूमीनC. बेंजीनD. इनमे से कोई भी नहीं

Answer» Correct Answer - A
9.

Shown in the figure below is a meter- bridge set up will null deflection in the galvanometer. The value of the unknown resistor R isA. `110 Omega`B. `55 Omega`C. `13. 75 Omega`D. `220 Omega`

Answer» Correct Answer - D
d. For balanced meter bridge (null deflection), we get
`(55)/R = 20/80 or R = 220 Omega` .
10.

The charge on the capacitor as in figure is A. `2 muC`B. `2/3 muC`C. `4/3 muC`D. zero

Answer» Correct Answer - C
c. Potential drop across `1 Omega = 2xx 1// 1.5V.` This potential drop
exists across capacitor. So,
`Q = CV = 4/3 muC` .
11.

The order the reactivity of some metals are given. Answer the following questions by analyzing it. Al >Zn >Cu >Aua Which metal is produced bytfie electrolysis of its molten salt ? b. Metal occur in free state in nature, c. Metal produced by the self oxidation reduction reaction. d. Metal ore which is reduced by carbon.

Answer»

a. Al 

b. Au 

c. Cu 

d. Zn

12.

In the diagrams, all light bulbs are identical and all emf sources are ideal and identical. In which circuit (given in option) will each bulb glow with the same brightness as in the circuit shown? B. C. D.

Answer» Correct Answer - C
Potential drop across each bulb is E, as that in the given cirucit.
13.

For the circuit shown, a shorting wire of negligible resistance is added to the circuit between points `A` and `B`. When this shorting wire is added, bulb 3 goes out. Which bulb (s) in the circuit brighten ? All bulbs are identical. A. only bulb 2B. only bulb 4C. only bulbs 1 and 4D. only bulbs 2 and 4

Answer» Correct Answer - C
c. Initially, `R_(eq) = 5R//3`. Finally, `R_(eq) = 3R//2` .
Equivalent resistance decreases, so current increases in circuit
and in 1 also. Hence, brightness of 1 increases. It means pd
across 1 increases, so across 2 pd decreases, hence brightness
of 2 decreases.
Initially, pd across 4 is `V_(4i) = 1/2 [((2R//3)epsilon)/(2R//3+R)] = epsilon/5`
Finally, `V_(4f) = ((R//2)epsilon)/(R//2+R) = epsilon/3`
Since `V_(4f) gt V_(4i)`, brightness of 4 increases.
14.

Find the potential drop across the capacitor in the given circuit. A. 6 VB. 6.5 VC. 7 VD. none of these

Answer» Correct Answer - B
b. The current will pass through only resistance part of the circuit.
Hence, `I = 9/(1+6+2) 1A`
Potential drop across `3muF` capacitance is
`V_(AB) = V_(AB) + V_(BC) = 1 xx 6 + 1/2 xx 1 = 6.5 V `
(Apply current division for current in branch BC which is
`1//2A)`.
15.

In the diagrams, all the right bulbs are identical, and all cells are ideal and identical. In which circuit (a,b, c,d) will the bulbs be dimmest ?A. B. C. D.

Answer» Correct Answer - C
c. In this option, emf id least and resistance is maximum, so bulbs will be dimmest in this option.
16.

Ammonium Chloride has a pH value equal toA. zeroB. 7C. less than 7D. greater than 7

Answer» Correct Answer - C
17.

Avogadro’s number (N) is equal to–(a) 6.023 x 1024 (b) 6.023 x 1023 (c)  6.023 x 1023(d) 11.2  

Answer»

Avogadro’s number (N) is equal to 6.023 x 102.

18.

I haven’t the ________ idea what you mean. A) lightest B) dimmest C) faintest D) furthest E) smallest

Answer»

Correct option is C) faintest

19.

Fatty acids are beat transported across the plasma membrane by

Answer»

Answer: Protein-mediated mechanism.

20.

Calculate the amount of work done in each of the following cases : (i) One mole of an ideal gas contained in a bulb of 10 litre capacity at 1 bar is allowed to enter into an evacuated bulb of 100 litre capacity. (ii) One mole of a gas is allowed to expand from a volume of 1 litre to a volume of 5 litres against the constant external pressure of 1 atm (1 litres atm = 101.3 J) Calculate the internal energy change (ΔU) in each case if the process were carried out adiabatically.

Answer»

(i) w = –Pext × ΔV

As expansion taks place into the evacuated bulb, i.e.,

against vacuum, Pext = 0. Henc, w = 0.

For adiabatic process, q = 0 

∴ ΔU = q + w = 0 + 0 = 0.

(ii) V = V2 – V1 = 5 – 1 = 4 litres

P = 1 atm ∴ w = – PV

 = –1 × 4 litre atm = – 4 litres atm

 = – 4 × 101.3 J = – 405.2 J (1 L – atm = 101.3J) 

The negative sign implies that the work is done by the system.

For adiabatic process, ΔU = q + w = 0 – 405.2 J = – 405.2 J.

21.

Calculate the standard enthalpy of formation of CH3OH (l) from the following data :(i) CH3OH (l) + 3/2 O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + 2H2O(l) ΔrH° = -726 KJ mol-1(ii) C(s) +O2 (g)→CO2 (g); ΔrH° = – 393 kJ mol–l(iii) H2(g) +1/2 O2(g) →H2O(l) ΔrH° – 286 kJ mol–1 .

Answer»

Aim : C (s) + 2H2 (g) + 1/2 O2 (g) CH3 OH,Δ fH°(l)

Eqn. (ii) + 2 × Eqn. (iii) – Eqn. (i) gives the required eqn. 

with ΔH= – 393 + 2 (–286) – (– 726) kJ mol–1 =

22.

Heat of neutralisation is least when(a) NaOH is neutralised by CH3 COOH (b) NaOH is neutralised by HCl (c) NH4OH is neutralised by CH3 COOH (d) NH4OH is neutralised by HNO3. 

Answer»

(c) NH4OH is neutralised by CH3 COOH 

23.

If ΔH is the change in enthalpy and ΔE, the change in internal energy accompanying a gaseous reaction, then(a) ΔH is always greater than ΔE(b) ΔH <ΔE only if the number of moles of the products is greater than the number of moles of the reactants(c) ΔH is always less than ΔE(d) ΔH <ΔE only if the number of moles of products is less than the number of moles of the reactants.

Answer»

(d) ΔH <ΔE only if the number of moles of products is less than the number of moles of the reactants.

24.

For the transitionC (diamond) →C (graphite); ΔH = –1.5 kJ.It follows that (a) diamond is exothermic (b) graphite is endothermic (c) graphite is stabler than diamond (d) diamond is stabler than graphite. 

Answer»

(c) graphite is stabler than diamond

25.

How many of the following statement(s) is/are true for free expansion of ideal gas in an insulated container ? 1. It is a Reversible process. 2. `Delta H=0`, for this process. 3. `Delta E=0`, for this process. 4. `Delta(PV)=0` 5. `Delta T = 0` , for this process. 6. `Delta S_("surrounding")=0`, for this process. 7. `Delta S_("system")=0`, for this process. 8. `Delta S_("total") = 0`, for this process.

Answer» Correct Answer - 5
How many of the …………
False statement are `1, 7 and 8` remaining are true.
26.

Calculate the enthalpy change accompanying the transformation of C (graphite) to C(diamond). Given that the enthalpies of combustion of graphite and diamond are 393.5 and 395.4 kJ mol–1 respectively.

Answer»

Remember, enthalpy of combustion is always negative we are given

(i) C (graphite) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) ; Δc H° = – 393.5 kJ mol–1

(ii) C (diamond) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) ; Δc H°  = – 395.4 kJ mol–1

We aim at C(graphite) → C(diamond), Δtrans H°= ?

Subtracting eqn. (ii) from eqn. (i), we get

 C(graphite – C(diamond) → 0;

Δr H° = – 393.5 – (–395.4) = + 1.9 kJ 

or C(graphite) → (diamond) ; Δtrans H = + 1.9 kJ

27.

The LCM of two numbers is 6 times their HCF. If one of them is 45 and the sum of HCF and LCM is 315, find the other number.A. 190B. 360C. 270D. 3001. B2. A3. C4. D

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : C

Given:

The LCM of two numbers is 6 times their HCF.

One of them is 45 and the sum of HCF and LCM is 315.

Formula used:

LCM × HCF = N1 × N2

LCM = least common factor, HCF = Heighest common factor

N1 = first number, N2 = second number

Calculation:

According to the question,

N1 = 45

LCM = 6 HCF

LCM + HCF = 315

⇒ 6 × HCF + HCF = 315

⇒ 7 HCF = 315

⇒ HCF = 315/7

⇒ HCF = 45

⇒ LCM = 6 × HCF 

⇒ LCM = 6 × 45 = 270

Then,

LCM × HCF = N1 × N2

⇒ 270 × 45 = 45 × N2

⇒ N2 = 270

∴ The other number is 270.

28.

Carbon monoxide is allowed to expand isothermally and reversibly from 10 m3 to 20 m3 at 300 K and work obtained is 4.754 kJ. Calculate the number of moles of carbon monoxide.

Answer»

w = – 2.303 n RT log V2/V1

– 4754 = – 2.303 × n × 8.314 × 300 log 20/10.

This given n = 2.75 moles.

29.

A system absorb 10 kJ of heat at constant volume and its temperature rises from 27°C to 37°C. The value of ΔU is (a) 100 kJ (b) 10 kJ (c) 0 (d) 1 kJ 

Answer»

The Correct option is (b) 10 kJ 

30.

The graph given below represents three categories of organismic responses - L, M and N to cope with stressful conditions. Identify the categories L and M.Given below are examples of some of the activities performed by animals. Categorise these activities into the appropriate kind of the organismic response (L, M or N) as shown in the graph with reasons.(i) In summers we sweat profusely. (ii) Sometimes desert lizards bask in the sun and sometimes they move into shade.

Answer»

L: Conformers,

M: Regulators

i. To regulate the body temperature – M/Regulators 

ii. To keep their body temperature constant by behavioural response for coping with variations in environment – L/Conformers

31.

Identify incorrect relation from the following(1) ΔH = ΔU - ΔPV(2) ΔG = ΔH - TΔS(3) ΔSsys + ΔSsurr \(\ge\) 0 [For spontaneous process](4) ΔU = q + w

Answer»

Correct option is (1) ΔH = ΔU - ΔPV

ΔH = ΔU + ΔPV

32.

Identify the mis - matched one. (A) Sperm cells – Acrosome (B) Ovaries – Ovule (C) Fallopian tubes – Amnion 

Answer»

(C) (Fallopian tubes - Amnion)

33.

Female reproductive organs and associated functions are given belowin column A and B. Fill in the blank boxes.Column Acolumn BovariesovalationoviductABPregnancyvaginaBirth

Answer» (A )—  Fertilisation
(B) —  Uterus
34.

What are the environmental consequences of using fossil fuels? Suggest the steps to minimise the pollution caused by various sources oaf energy including non-conventional sources of energy.

Answer»

Fossil fuels have the following, environmental effects:
(i) Air pollution: Burning of fossil fuels releases oxides and sulphides in the air and many other harmful gases like carbon monoxide, sulphur dioxide, etc. These cause various health problems and also lead to; acid rain which further affects water and soil resources.
(ii) Greenhouse effect: On burning fossil fuels, a large amount carbon dioxide is released into the atmosphere. This is a greenhouse gas and does not allow the sun rays reflected from the earth surface to escape into the atmosphere. Thus, increasing the temperature of the atmosphere. This is called greenhouse effect and results in global, warming. 

Following steps can be taken to minimize pollution:
(i) Use of smokeless appliances.
(ii) Use of refined technology to increase the efficiency of the combustion process and to reduce the escape of harmful gases into the atmosphere.
(iii) Judicious use of energy.

35.

Derive a relation between cp and cv

Answer»

Relationship between Cand CV for an Ideal Gas

From the equation q = n C ∆T, we can say:

At constant pressure P, we have qP = n CP∆T

This value is equal to the change in enthalpy, that is, qP = n CP∆T = ∆H

Similarly, at constant volume V, we have q

V = n CV∆T

This value is equal to the change internal energy, that is, q

V = n CV∆T= ∆U

We know that for one mole (n=1) of ideal gas,

∆H = ∆U + ∆(pV )

= ∆U + ∆(RT )

= ∆U + R∆T

Therefore, ∆H = ∆U + R ∆T

Substituting the values of ∆H and ∆U from above in the former equation,

CP∆T = CV∆T + R ∆T

Or CP = CV + R

Or C– CV= R

36.

Cerebrospinal fluid A. Is formed in the arachnoid granulations. B. Provides the brain with most of its nutrition. C. Protects the brain from injury when the head is moved. D. Has a lower pressure than that in the cerebral venous sinuses. E. Flow around the adult brain is around half a litre per day

Answer»

A. False It is formed in choroid plexuses by active and passive processes. 

B. False Most of the brain’s nutrition comes from the blood. 

C. True This is its main function and it does so through cushioning and buoyancy. 

D. False Its higher pressure allows drainage by filtration to the dural venous sinuses via the arachnoid villi. 

E. True This is about four times its volume. 

37.

A skeletal muscle fibre A. Membrane is negatively charged on the inside with respect to the outside at rest. B. Contains intracellular stores of calcium ions. C. Is normally innervated by more than one motor neurone. D. Becomes more excitable as its resting membrane potential falls. E. Becomes less excitable as the extracellular ionized calcium levels fall.

Answer»

A. True This ‘resting membrane potential’ is about 90 mV. 

B. True These are released on excitation. 

C. False A single neurone supplies a group of muscle fibres. 

D. True It becomes more excitable as its membrane potential approaches the firing threshold (about 70 mV). 

E. False Decreasing extracellular Ca2+ increases excitability and may lead to spontaneous contractions (tetany), possibly by increasing sodium permeability.

38.

A property shared by A. Skeletal and cardiac muscle is their striated microscopical appearance. B. Skeletal and multiunit smooth muscle is that they are paralysed when their motor nerves are cut. C. Cardiac and visceral smooth muscle is their spontaneous activity when denervated. D. Skeletal and cardiac ventricular muscle is their stable resting membrane potential. E. All varieties of muscle is that contraction strength is related to their initial length.

Answer»

A. True Both have highly organized actin and myosin filaments. 

B. True The iris is an example of multiunit smooth muscle. 

C. True Isolated hearts and gut segments show spontaneous activity in the organ bath. 

D. True Only the pace maker cells in the heart have unstable membrane potentials. 

E. True The Frank–Starling relationship describes this with respect to cardiac muscle.

39.

In skeletal muscle A. Contraction occurs when its pacemaker cells depolarize sufficiently to reach the threshold for firing. B. Calcium is taken up by the sarcotubular system when it contracts. C. Actin and myosin filaments shorten when it contracts. D. The sarcomeres shorten during contraction. E. Contraction strength is related to initial length of the muscle fibres.

Answer»

A. False Skeletal muscle has no pacemaker cells and shows no spontaneous activity. 

B. False Calcium is released from intracellular stores when it contracts. 

C. False The filaments do not shorten but slide together over one another. 

D. True There is greater overlap of the actin and myosin fibrils. 

E. True Moderate stretch increases contraction strength as in the heart.

40.

Muscle tone is reduced by A. Curare-like drugs. B. Lower motor neurone lesions. C. Upper motor neurone lesions. D. Cerebellar lesions. E. Gamma efferent impulses to muscle spindles.

Answer»

A. True These paralyse muscle by blocking transmission at neuromuscular junctions. 

B. True Lower motor neurones also paralyse skeletal muscle. 

C. False Loss of supraspinal influences results in spasticity of the affected muscles. 

D. True The cerebellum helps to maintain normal muscle tone. 

E. False These increase spindle sensitivity to stretch and hence muscle tone.

41.

Visceral smooth muscle differs from skeletal muscle in that A. It contracts when stretched. B. It is not paralyzed when its motor nerve supply is cut. C. Its cells have unstable resting membrane potentials. D. It contains no actin or myosin. E. Excitation depends more on influx of extracellular calcium than release of calcium from endoplasmic reticulum.

Answer»

A. True The intrinsic ‘myogenic’ response in smooth muscle opposes stretch; skeletal muscle requires a nerve reflex arc for this type of response. 

B. True It continues to contract due to local pacemakers. 

C. True They show spontaneous depolarization between contractions. 

D. False In smooth muscle, actin and myosin filaments occur but are less obvious on microscopy. 

E. True Smooth muscle has a less well-developed sarcoplasmic reticulum.

42.

A somatic lower motor neurone A. Innervates fewer fibres in an eye muscle than does one innervating a leg muscle. B. Conducts impulses at a speed similar to that in an autonomic postganglionic neurone. C. Is unmyelinated. D. Conducts impulses which cause relaxation in some skeletal muscles. E. Synapse with skeletal muscle but not with other neurones.

Answer»

A. True The more precise the movement required, the fewer the fibres supplied by one motor neurone. 

B. False Somatic motor neurones conduct at 60–120 m/sec; autonomic at about 1 m/sec. 

C. False Fast-conducting fibres are large and myelinated. 

D. False Impulses carried by somatic motor neurones are excitatory to skeletal muscle. 

E. False Some carry impulses to inhibitory (Renshaw) cells in the anterior horn. 

43.

A volley of impulses travelling in a pre-synaptic neurone causes A. An identical volley in the post-synaptic neurone. B. An increase in the permeability of the pre-synaptic nerve terminals to calcium. C. Vesicles in the nerve endings to fuse with the cell membrane and release their contents. D. The generation of at least one action potential in the post-synaptic neurone. E. Neurotransmitter to travel down the nerve axon.

Answer»

A. False The synapse may amplify or attenuate the signal. 

B. True The uptake of Ca2+ by the nerve ending facilitates release of transmitter. 

C. True The neurotransmitter contained in the vesicles is released by exocytosis. 

D. False The impulses may be inhibitory; even if they are excitatory, the post-synaptic neurone may be strongly inhibited by inputs from other pre-ganglionic neurones. 

E. True Neurotransmitter is thought to be synthesized and packaged in the Golgi apparatus in the neurone cell body before travelling down the axon to the nerve terminals.

44.

An inhibitory post-synaptic potential A. May be recorded in a post-ganglionic sympathetic neurone. B. May be recorded in an anterior horn motor neurone. C. Does not exceed one millivolt in amplitude. D. Moves membrane potential towards the equilibrium potential for potassium. E. May summate in space and time with other excitatory and inhibitory potentials in the same neurone.

Answer»

A. False No such potentials have been recorded here. 

B. True The hyperpolarization of the anterior horn cell reduces the likelihood of the cell firing action potentials by moving the membrane potential further from the firing threshold. 

C. False Its amplitude is about 5 mV and its duration about 5 msec. 

D. True It may be produced by increased permeability to potassium or to chloride ions. 

E. True In this way the post-synaptic cell integrates the various signals it receives.

45.

If the number of molecules of `SO_(2)` (atomic weight=64) effusing through an orifice of unit area of cross-section in unit time at `0^(@)C` and 1 atm pressure in n. the number of He molecules (atomic weight=4) effusin under similar conditions at `273^(@)C` and 0.25 atm is:A. `n/sqrt2`B. `nsqrt2`C. 2nD. `n/2`

Answer» Correct Answer - A
`r_1/r_2=p_1/p_2sqrt((T_2M_2)/(T_1M_1))implies n/x=1/0.25sqrt((2xx273xx4)/(273xx64))implies x=n/sqrt2`
46.

When pure carbon is burned in air, some of it oxidizes into CO2 and some to CO. The molar ratio of N2 to O2 is 7.18 and the ratio of CO to CO2 is 2.0 in the product gas. What is the percent excess air used? The exit gases contain only N2, O2, CO and CO2.(a) 50 %(b) 60 %(c) 40 %(d) 20 %

Answer» Right choice is (c) 40 %

Easiest explanation: The process involves two reactions:

R1 = C + O2 = CO2

R2 = C + 1/2 O2 = CO

As the product (output) gas composition is specified more clearly, we may use it as starting point.

Take N2 in the product as nN2 = Take N2 in the product as, then O2 = 1 mol

N2 as an inert gas: input = output = 7.18 mol

O2 input with air = 7.18 (21/79) = 1.91 mol

Total O2 consumption = 1.91-1 = 0.91 mol

If R1 uses n1 mol O2, generating n1 mol CO2, R2 uses 0.91-n1 mol O2, generating 2

(0.91-n1) mol CO.

Since CO/CO2 in the product gas = 2, 2 (0.91-n1)/n1 = 2

n1 = 0.91/2 = 0.455 mol

Therefore, total moles of C input = 3 n1 = 1.365 mol

O2 required for complete combustion of 1.365 mol C = 1.365 mol (for R1 only)

O2 excess % = (1.91 -1365)/1.365 x 100% = 39.9% = 40% .
47.

A mixture contains 20% O2 with CP = 10 J/^oC, 30% N2 with CP = 20 J/^oC and 50% CO2 with CP= 40 J/^oC, what is the average CP of mixture?(a) 20 J/^oC(b) 28 J/^oC(c) 34 J/^oC(d) 42 J/^oC

Answer» The correct option is (b) 28 J/^oC

Easiest explanation: Average CP = 0.2*10 + 0.3*20 + 0.5*40 = 2 + 6 + 20 = 28 J/^oC.
48.

A gas mixture comprises of 20% CO2, 50% O2, and 30% N2 has the total pressure 100 Pa at temperature -73^oC, if the temperature is increased to 27^oC, what is the new partial pressure of N2?(a) 15 Pa(b) 30 Pa(c) 45 Pa(d) 60 Pa

Answer» Right option is (c) 45 Pa

Explanation: P1/P2 = T1/T2, => 100/P2 = 200/300, => P2 = 150 Pa, => new partial pressure of N2 = 0.3*150 = 45 Pa.
49.

Which of the following is incorrect statement for pulses?a. They are baked / fried to make savouries (namkeens)b. It can be sprouted and used as saladsc. It can also be cooked to make dessertsd. It is used to make bhakri and khakhras

Answer»

d. It is used to make bhakri and khakhras

It is used to make bhakri and khakhras is incorrect statement for pulses.

50.

List any four career opportunities of an Entrepreneur with respect to Hospitality Industry

Answer»

Restaurants, Hotel, Food Vans, Travel & Tourism companies etc