Explore topic-wise InterviewSolutions in .

This section includes InterviewSolutions, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

Which part of India has the Kalakot tertiary coal field? A. Brahmaputra river basin of Assam B. Damodar river basin of Jharkhand and West Bengal C. Himalayan mountain region D. Cardamom hills in Kerala

Answer»

Correct option (c) Himalayan Mountain Range

Explanation:

Tertiary coal fields have only 1% share of total coal production of India. Kalakot coal field is in Jammu and Kashmir, south of Pirpanjal. Hence, in the Himalayan Mountain Range. 

2.

Arrange the following Indian cities according to their location from west to east: 1. Bilaspur 2. Jodhpur 3. Bhopal 4. RanchiSelect the correct answer using the code given below: A. 3-2-1-4 B. 2-3-1-4 C. 4-1-2-3 d. 2-1-3-4

Answer»

Correct option  (b) 2-3-1-4

Explanation:

CityState (from west to east)
JodhpurRajasthan
BhopalMadhya Pradesh
BilaspurChhattisgarh 
RanchiJharkhand
3.

Rudraprayag is situated at the confluence of revers Alaknanda and A. Bhagirathi B. Mandakini C. Nandakini D. Dhauliganga

Answer»

Correct option (b) Mandakini

Explanation:

Rudraprayag is one of the Panch Prayag (five confluences) of Alaknanda River, the point of confluence of rivers Alaknanda and Mandakini. 

Kedarnath, a Hindu holy town is located 86 km from Rudraprayag.

4.

Who among the following used the term Industrial Revolution for the first time in English to describe the changes that occun-ed in the British industrial development between 1760 and 1820 ? A. Friedrich Engels B. Eric Hobsbawm C. Arnold Toynbee D. Georges Michelet

Answer»

Correct option (c) Arnold Toynbee  

Explanation:

Although used earlier by French writers, the term Industrial Revolution was first popularized by the English economic historian Arnold Toynbee (1852–83) to describe Britain’s economic development from 1760 to 1840. Since Toynbee’s time the term has been more broadly applied.

5.

Which one of the following is not a subject that has been devolved to the Panchayati Raj Institutions by the 11th Schedule of the Constitution of India ? A. Non-conventional energy resources B. Roads C. Higher education D. Libraries

Answer»

Correct option (c) Higher Education

Explanation:

The 11th schedule enshrines the distribution of powers between the State legislature and the Panchayats. These 29 subjects are listed below: 

11th Schedule of the Constitution

1. Agriculture, including agricultural extension.16. Poverty alleviation programme.
2. Land improvement, implementation of land reforms, land consolidation and soil conservation.17. Education, including primary and secondary schools.
3. Minor irrigation, water management and watershed development.18. Technical training and vocational education.
4. Animal husbandry, dairying and poultry.19. Adult and non-formal education.
5. Fisheries.20. Libraries.
6. Social forestry and farm forestry.21. Cultural activities.
7. Minor forest produce. 22. Markets and fairs.
8. Small scale industries, including food processing industries.23. Health and sanitation, including hospitals, primary health centers and dispensaries. 
9. Khadi, village and cottage industries.24. Family welfare.
10. Rural housing.25. Women and child development.
11. Drinking water.26. Social welfare, including welfare of the handicapped and mentally retarded. 
12. Fuel and fodder.27. Welfare of the weaker sections, and in particular, of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
13. Roads, culverts, bridges, ferries, waterways and other means of communication. 28. Public distribution system.
14. Rural electrification, including distribution of electricity.29. Maintenance of community assets.
15. Non-conventional energy sources.

6.

In the following passage, at certain points you are given a choice of four words marked A, B,C and D one of which fits the meaning of the passage. Choose the best word out of the four. Mark the letter, viz., A, B,C and D, relating to this word on your Answer Sheet. Examples K and L have been solved for you.TheKLA.boy was in the school in Shimla.A.She was homesick.B.horseB.ItC.dogC.HeD.cowD.Her

Answer»

Out of the list given in item K, only, 'boy' is the correct answer because usually, a boy, and not a horse, a dog or a cow, attends school. So 'A' is to be marked on the Answer Sheet for item K. A boy is usually referred to as 'he', so for item L , 'C' is the correct answer. Notice that to solve the first item K you have to-read the rest of the sentence and then see what fits best.

7.

The term "Probiotic" is applied to A. Organic food B. Antacid C. Antibiotic D. Live microbial food supplement

Answer»

Correct option  (d) Live microbial food supplement 

Explanation:

Probiotics are microorganisms that are claimed to provide health benefits when consumed. 

Probiotics are live bacteria and yeasts that are good for your health, especially your digestive system.

8.

Which one of the following vitamins has a role in blood because A. the air pressure is less B. outside temperature is less C. latent heat is less D. None of the above

Answer»

Correct option (d) Vitamin K

Explanation:

Vitamin K is a group of structurally similar, fat-soluble vitamins that the human body requires for complete synthesis of certain proteins that are prerequisites for blood coagulation. It is active as a vitamin in animals and performs the classic functions of vitamin K, including its activity in the production of blood-clotting proteins.

9.

Which one of the following about the Swadeshi Campaign in 1896 is not conect? A. Its centre was Maharashtra B. Its main participants were students C. It opposed the levy of tariff on imports D. It publicly burnt foreign clothes

Answer»

Correct option (c) It opposed the levy of tariff on imports

Explanation:

In fact, the Swadeshi Campaign in 1896 vouched for levying tariff on imports to promote the home-made products. Hence, statement C is incorrect.

10.

Which one of the following microbes causes acidification and curding of milk? A. Lactic Acid Bacillus B. Clostridium botulinum C. Vibrio cholerae D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae

Answer»

Correct option (a) Lactic Acid Bacillus

Explanation:

The lactic acid curdles the milk that then separates to form curds, which are used to produce cheese and whey. 

Acidification of milk means lowering its pH. It causes the milk proteins to unwind and unfold in a process known as protein denaturing. Lactic Acid does the process in case of milk.

11.

Which one of the following waves is used for detecting forgery in currency notes? A. Ultraviolet waves B. Infrared waves C. Radio waves D. Microwaves

Answer»

Correct option (a) Ultraviolet waves

Explanation:

Ultraviolet waves or UV rays are used for detecting fake and forged currency. The paper currency has a strip that is embedded in the note. This strip cannot be forged like that in the original currency. 

An authentic paper currency will fluoresce when it is illuminated by long wave ultraviolet light. 

12.

How long does light take to reach the Earth from the Sun? A. About 4 minutes B. About 8 minutes C. About 24 minutes D. About 24 hours

Answer»

Correct option (b) About 8 minutes

Explanation:

Sunlight travels at the speed of light. We orbit the Sun at a distance of about 150 million km. Light moves at 300,000 kilometers/second. Divide these and you get 500 seconds, or 8 minutes and 20 seconds. 

13.

Light year is a measure of A. time B. distance C. total amount of light falling on the Earth in a year D. average intensity of light falling on the Earth in a year

Answer»

Correct option (b) distance

Explanation:

A light-year is a unit of distance, not time. A light-year is how astronomers measure distance in space.

As defined by the International Astronomical Union (IAU), a light-year is the distance that light travels in vacuum in one Julian year. It is equal to 9.4607 × 1015 m.

14.

Step-up transformers are used for A. increasing electrical power' B. decreasing electrical power C. decreasing voltage D. increasing voltage

Answer»

Correct option (d) increasing voltage

Explanation:

Transformers “step up” or “step down” voltage according to the ratios of primary to secondary wire turns. A transformer designed to increase voltage from primary to secondary is called a step-up transformer. A transformer designed to reduce voltage from primary to secondary is called a step-down transformer.

15.

The follow items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely A, B, C and D. You are required to re- arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

Answer»

Correct option D.

Explanation:

P and R are mandatory pairs and they must follow the fixed part as they state the action that has been accomplished by the spirit of man. Surmount means to overcome, and obstacles are required to be overcome. Q follows R as the coordinating conjunction “and” introduces another aspect that the “spirit” of man has faced. Thus the correct sequence after rearrangement is PRQS and option D is the correct answer.

16.

The compound C6H12O4 contains A. 22 atoms per mole B. twice the mass percent of H as compared to the mass percent of C C. six times the mass percent of C as compared to the mass percent of H D. thrice the mass percent of H as compared to the mass percent of O

Answer»

Correct option C. six times the mass percent of C as compared to the mass percent of H

Explanation:

There are 6.022 ×1023 entities in 1 mole. 

Atomic mass of Carbon = 12 

Atomic mass of Hydrogen = 1| 

Atomic mass of Oxygen = 16 

Molecular mass 

= (6 × 12) + (12 × 1) + (4 × 16) 

= 72 + 12 + 64 = 148

Mass percentage of carbon

= 72/148 = 49% 

Mass percentage of hydrogen = 12/148 = 8% 

Mass percentage of oxygen = 64/148 = 43% 

Hence, correct option is (C). 

17.

Who among the following was the founder of the Young Bengal Movement? A. Henry Vivian Derozio B. David Hare C. Dwarkanath Tagore D. Prasanna Kumar Tagore

Answer»

Correct option (a) Henry Vivian Derozio

Explanation:

Young Bengal Movement was launched by Henry Louis Vivian Derozio (1809- 1831), who had come to Calcutta in 1826 and was appointed in the Hindu College as a teacher of English literature and History. 

Besides this he edited Hesperus and Calcutta Literary Gazette. He was connected with India Gazette as well.

18.

Who among the following was the founder of the Avadh Kingdom in the 18th century?A. Murshid Quli Khan B. Saadat Khan C. Alivardi Khan D. Sarfaraz Khan

Answer»

Correct option   (b) Saadat Khan

Explanation:

Awadh was established as one of the twelve original subahs (top-level imperial provinces) under 16th-century Mughal emperor Akbar and became a hereditary tributary polity around 1722 AD, with Faizabad as its initial capital and Saadat Ali Khan as its first Subadar Nawab and progenitor of a dynasty of Nawabs of Awadh.

19.

SAMPADA scheme is being implemented by the Ministry of A. Finance B. Housing and Urban Affairs C. Food Processing Industries D. Earth Sciences 

Answer»

Correct option (c) Food Processing Industries

Explanation:

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs chaired by the Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi has given its approval for re-structuring the schemes of the Ministry of Food Processing Industries (MoFPI) under new Central Sector Scheme – SAMPADA (Scheme for AgroMarine Processing and Development of Agro-Processing Clusters) for the period 2016-20 coterminous with the 14th Finance Commission cycle. It has an allocation of 6000 crores.

20.

Who among the following is the Chairman of the Interdisciplinary Committee constituted recently by the Govemment of India to examine framework for virtu al currencies ? A. Secretary, Department of Financial Services B. Special Secretary, Department of Revenue C. Special Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs D. Deputy Governor, Reserve Bank of India

Answer»

Correct option (c) Special Secretary,

Explanation:

Department of Economic Affairs In April 2017, The Union government constituted a time-bound interdisciplinary committee to come up with an action plan for dealing with virtual currencies so as to fix the regulatory gaps in the existing framework governing virtual currencies. The nine-member inter-disciplinary committee is chaired by Dinesh Sharma, special secretary in the economic affairs department.

The committee also have representatives from the Department of Economic Affairs, Department of Financial Services, Department of Revenue, Ministry of Home Affairs, IT ministry, Reserve Bank of India, NITI Aayog and State Bank of India. 

21.

The species that has the same number of electrons as 3517Cl is A. 3216S B. 3416S+ C. 4018Ar+ D. 3516S2− 

Answer»

Correct option  A. 3216S

Explanation:

Only A option would have same number of electrons i.e. 16. In rest of the options, due to presence of charge, the number of electrons vary.

22.

The majority charge carriers in a p-type semiconductor are A. free electrons B. conduction electrons C. ions D. holes

Answer»

Correct option (d) holes

Explanation:

In p-type semiconductors, holes are the majority carriers and electrons are the minority carriers. 

The less abundant charge carriers are called minority carriers; in n-type semiconductors they are holes.

23.

The principle use of hydrofluoric acid is A. in etching glass B. as a bleaching agent C. as an extremely strong oxidizing agent D. in the preparation of strong organic fluorine compounds

Answer»

Correct option (a) in etching glass

Explanation:

Hydrofluoric (HF) acid, one of the strongest inorganic acids, is used mainly for industrial purposes (eg, glass etching, metal cleaning, electronics manufacturing).

24.

The ionization energy of hydrogen atom in the ground state is A. 13 .6 MeV  B. 13 .6 eV  C. 13 .6 Joule D. Zero

Answer»

Correct option (b) 13.6 eV

Explanation:

The ionization energy of hydrogen in its ground state is 13.6 eV 

For a hydrogen atom, composed of an orbiting electron bound to a nucleus of one proton, an ionization energy of 2.18 × 10−18 joule (13.6 electron volts) is required to force the electron from its lowest energy level entirely out of the atom.

25.

Which compound, when dissolved in water, conducts electricity and forms a basic solution? A. HCl B. CH3COOH C. CH3OH D. NaOH

Answer»

Correct option (d) NaOH

Explanation:

Strong electrolyte is an ionic compound that dissociates completely in water & conducts electricity. 

From the given options, only NaOH and HCl are strong electrolytes and NaOH alone would form a basic solution when dissolved in water. 

NaOH is a strong electrolyte. It is an alkali-a water soluble strong base.

26.

Golden rice is a genetically-modified crop plant where the incorporated gene is meant for biosynthesis ofA. Omega-3 fatty acidsB. Vitamin AC. Vitamin BD. Vitamin C

Answer»

Correct option (b) Vitamin A

Explanation:

Golden rice is a variety of rice produced through genetic engineering to biosynthesize beta-carotene, a precursor of vitamin A, in the edible parts of rice. It is intended to produce a fortified food to be grown and consumed in areas with a shortage of dietary vitamin A.

27.

An object moves m a circular path with a constant speed. Which one of the following statements is correct? A. The centripetal acceleration of the "object is smaller for a gentle curve (i.e.,curve of larger radius) than that for a sharp curve (i .e ., curve of smaller radius). B. The centripetal accel eration is greater for a gentle curve than that for a sharp curve. C. The centripetal acceleration is the same for both, the gentle and sharp curves. D. The centripetal acceleration causes the object to slow down.

Answer»

Correct option (a) The centripetal acceleration of the object is smaller for a gentle curve (i.e., curve of larger radius) than that for a sharp curve (i.e., curve of smaller radius).  

Explanation:

Centripetal Acceleration is given by A= v^2/R, where v is the velocity and R is the radius of the curve.

Since the gentle curve has a larger radius, it has a smaller centripetal acceleration. 

Hence, A is the correct statement. 

28.

When pure water boils vigorously, the bubbles that rise to the surface are composed primarily of A. air B. hydrogen C. hydrogen and oxygen D. water vapour

Answer»

Correct option (d) water vapour

Explanation:

When you first start to boil water, the bubbles are basically air bubbles. These are bubbles formed from the dissolved gases in water. The solubility of gases decreases when the temperature is increased, and that is why the dissolved air bubbles come out from the water. Then, as the boiling point of water is reached, water vapor starts to form in the form of bubbles.

29.

If some object is weighed when submerged in water, what will happen to its weight in air ? A. Increase B. Decrease C. Remain exactly the same D. Increase or decrease cannot be predicted

Answer»

Correct option (b) Decrease

Explanation:

An object weighs the same in air as well as in water. But, in water an additional buoyant force acts on the ball in a direction opposite to the direction in which the weight of the ball acts. If the weight of the ball acts downwards, buoyant force acts upwards. These two forces work together to make it seem as the object weighs less in water.

30.

Water boils at a lower temperature at high altitudes, because A. the aur pressure is less B. outside temperature is less C. latent heat is less D. None of the above

Answer»

Correct option (a) the air pressure is less

Explanation: 

Water boils at a lower temperature at high altitudes. The boiling point of water is lower at higher altitudes due to the decreased atmospheric pressure. A liquid boils when its vapor pressure exceeds the local total pressure.

31.

Concave mirror is used in headlights of vehicles, because it A. focuses light from the bulb onto nearby vehicles B. sends parallel rays C. fits well into the shape of the headlight D. is cheaper than other mirrors

Answer»

Correct option (b) sends parallel rays

Explanation:

Concave mirrors are commonly used in not only vehicles headlights but also in torches and search-lights to get powerful parallel beams of light to focus the light at the longer distances by placing the source of light at the focus of the Concave mirrors.

32.

Melanin is the natural pigment that gives colour to human skin, hair and the iris. It provides protection against A. illtraviolet radiation B. Infrared radiation C. X-ray radiation D. Short wave radio radiation

Answer»

Correct option (a) Ultraviolet radiation

Explanation:

Melanin is a protective pigment in skin, blocking UV radiation from damaging DNA and potentially causing skin cancer.

UVA radiation causes lesions or DNA damage to melanocytes, which are the skin cells that produce the skin pigment known as melanin.

33.

Which one of the following statements about microbes is not correct? A. They are used in sewage treatment plants. B. They are used in industrial fermenters for the production of beverages. C. No antibiotic has been obtained from any microbe. D. They are used to get many bioactive molecules for the treatment of diseases.

Answer»

Correct option (c) No antibiotic has been obtained from any microbe.

Explanation:

Some clinically important antibiotics
AntibioticProducer organismActivity
Polymyxin BBacillus polymyxaGram-negative bacteria
Amphotericin BStreptomyces nodosusFungi
ErythromycinStreptomyces erythreusGram-positive bacteria
StreptomycinStreptomyces griseusGram-negative bacteria
TetracyclineStreptomyces rimosusBroad spectrum

Hence, various antiobiotics are obtained from microbes.

34.

Which one of the following is the scientific name of the causal organism of elephantiasis ? A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Culex pipiens C. Wuchereria bancrofti D. Fasciola hepatica

Answer»

Correct option (c) Wuchereria bancrofti

Explanation:

Elephantiasis tropica or lymphatic filariasis is caused by a number of parasitic worms, particularly Wuchereria bancrofti. 

W. bancrofti was named after physician Otto Wucherer and parasitologist Joseph Bancroft, both of whom extensively studied filarial infections like elephantiasis.

35.

Who among the following shared the Nobel Prize in 1962 along with Francis Crick and James Watson for their discoveries concerning the molecular structure of nucleic acids? A. Erwin Chargaff B. Maurice Hugh Frederick Wilkins C. Rosalind Franklin D. Phoebus Levene

Answer»

Correct option (b) Maurice Hugh Frederick Wilkins

Explanation:

The Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine 1962 was awarded jointly to Francis Harry Compton Crick, James Dewey Watson and Maurice Hugh Frederick Wilkins "for their discoveries concerning the molecular structure of nucleic acids and its significance for information transfer in living material".

36.

Who among the following is the author of the book ‘The Indian Struggle, 1920- 1934? A. Maulana Abul Kalam B. Jayprakash Narayan C. Subhash Chandra Bose D. Manabendra Nath Roy

Answer»

Correct option (c) Subhash Chandra Bose

Explanation:

The great Indian Struggle, 1920–1942 is a two-part book by the Indian nationalist leader Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose that covers the 1920–1942 history of the Indian independence movement to end British imperial rule over India.

37.

Which of the following statements about magnetite ore of iron is/are correct ? 1. It is known as black ore. 2. It contains 60% to 70% of pure iron. 3. It possesses magnetic properties. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1,2 and 3

Answer»

Correct option (c) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Percentage Fe in magnetite Fe3O4 is 168/(168 + 64)=72.4%. So, statement 2 is incorrect. 

It is the most magnetic of all the naturally-occurring minerals on Earth. 

So, statement 3 is correct. 

Magnetite is black or brownish-black with a metallic lustre. So statement 1 is correct. 

38.

Which one among the following waves carries the maximum energy per photon? A. X-rays B. Radio waves C. Light waves D. Microwaves

Answer»

Correct option (a) X-rays

Explanation:

E = hf 

So, if you increase the frequency of the wave, you get more energy per photon. Radio waves have photons with low energies, microwave photons have a little more energy than radio waves, infrared photons have still more, then visible, ultraviolet, X-rays, and, the most energetic of all, gamma-rays. 

39.

How much CO2 is produced on heating of 1 kg of carbon? A. 11/3kgB. 3/11C. 4/3kgD. 3/4kg

Answer»

Correct option (a) 11/3 kg

Explanation:

C + O2 → CO2 

12 g of C gives 44 g of CO

1 g of C = 11/3 g of CO2 

1 kg of C = 11/3 kg CO2

40.

Zinc is used to protect iron from corrosion because zinc is A. more electropositive than iron B. cheaper than iron C. a bluish white metal D. a good conductor of heat and electricity

Answer»

Correct option (a) more electropositive than iron

Explanation:

The iron or steel object is coated in a thin layer of zinc. This stops oxygen and water reaching the metal underneath - but the zinc also acts as a sacrificial metal. Zinc is more reactive than iron, so it oxidises in preference to the iron object.

41.

Which one of the following gases is placed second in respect of abundance in the Earth’s atmosphere? A. Oxygen B. Hydrogen C. Nitrogen D. Carbon dioxide

Answer»

Correct option  (a) Oxygen

Explanation:

The atmosphere is composed of ~78% nitrogen and ~21% oxygen, with small amounts of other gases. Gases like carbon dioxide, nitrous oxides, methane, and ozone are trace gases that account for about a tenth of one percent of the atmosphere.

42.

The proposition ‘equal volumes of different gases contain equal numbers of molecules at the same temperature and pressure’ is known as A. Avogadro’s hypothesis B. Gay-Lussac’s hypothesis C. Planck’s hypothesis D. Kirchhoff’s theory

Answer»

Correct option  (a) Avogadro's hypothesis

Explanation:

The law is named after Amedeo Avogadro who, in 1811, hypothesized that two given samples of an ideal gas, of the same volume and at the same temperature and pressure, contain the same number of molecules.

43.

Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word of group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly. most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.1. years________since I saw her last. A. have passed B. had passed C. had been passing D. have been passing 2. When he heard the terrible noise he asked me what was ______on. A. happening B. being C. getting D. going 3. Could you lend me some money? I am very _______of cash at the moment.A. down B. low C. short D. scarce 4. I saw her when she ws standing______ the side of the old statue.A. by B. at C. in D. beyond 5. True friends never________their loved ones in adversity. A. abuse B. criticize C. befool D. desert

Answer»

Correct option

1. A. have passed

2. D. going

3. C. short 

4. A. by

5. D. desert   

Explanation:

1.  The present perfect tense “have passed” should be used in the blank to indicate that something happened in the past, while implying that the exact time is not important. Hence, option A is the correct answer. 

2. “Happening’ would have been correct if the blank were not succeeded by the preposition “on”. Among the rest, only “going (on)” will form the correct phrasal vern. Thus, option D is the correct answer.

3.  “To be short” of cash or money implies that one has less money than required or has run out of it. Thus, option C is the most appropriate filler. 

4.  The usage of the phrase “side of” indicates that the “by” is the most appropriate preposition to be used. “By the side of” means beside. Thus, option A is the correct filler. 

5. Adversity refers to hard times. With respect to the context of the sentence, true friends will not leave alone/ desert their friends in bad times. Thus, option D is the most appropriate choice. The other options do not fit the context of the passage. 

44.

Which one of the following statements about the Ilbert Bill is correct? A. It proposed that the Indian magistrates would try Europeans in criminal cases. B. It allowed Indians to file criminal cases against Europeans. C. It authorized Indian ICS officers to try Europeans in courts. D. It was an agitation led by Ilbert in support of the nationalists.

Answer»

Correct option (A) It proposed that the Indian magistrates would try Europeans in criminal cases.

Explanation:

The Ilbert Bill was a bill introduced in 1883 during the Viceroyship of the Marquess of Ripon, which was written by Sir Courtenay Peregrine Ilbert (The law member of the Viceroy's Council). According to the said Act, Indian judges could try a European accused.

45.

Who among the following was believed to be a leader of the Sanyasis and Fakirs conspiring against the British in 1857? A. Mangal Pandey B. Bahadur Shah II C. Queen Zeenat Mahal D. Nana Sahib

Answer»

Correct option B. Bahadur Shah II

Explanation:

The Sanyasis and Fakirs revolted against British from 1763 to 1800 AD because of the prohibition that was imposed by the East India Company’s officials on their pilgrimage. The central leadership comprised of rebel council headed by emperor Bahadur Shah Jafar. Though Bahadur Shah Jafar’s wife Jeenat Mahal tried to conspire with English, but she was not the part of central leadership.

46.

Who among the following can attend the meetings of both Houses of Parliament while not being a member of either House? A. The Solicitor General of India B. The Vice-President of India C. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India D. The Attorney General of India

Answer»

Correct option (d) The Attorney General of India

Explanation:

Attorney general has right of audience in all courts within the territory of India. He has also the right to speak and take part in proceedings of both the houses of parliament including joint sittings. However, he cannot vote in parliament. Attorney General has all the powers and privileges that of a member of parliament. But he is not a member of the parliament.

47.

The follow items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely A, B, C and D. You are required to re- arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

Answer»

Correct option C. Q R P S

Explanation:

The first part would be the one which states what the scientists point out. So, Q is the first part. R and P must follow as they imply that the aftermath has reached its peak of the sunspot activity. S, thus comes in the end. Thus the correct sequence after rearrangement is QRPS and option C is the correct answer

48.

Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word of group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly. most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.1. He looks as if he _______weary. A. is B. was C. would be D. were 2. My house is insured________theft and fire. A. for B. against C. in D. towards 3. The result of the prolonged discussion was_______. A. disappointment B. disappointing C. disappointed D. to disappoint 4. You are lucky______in the 20th century. A. by being born B. to have been born C. for being born D. to have born 5. Sita is true to_________. A. word B. her words C. the words D. words

Answer»

Correct option

1. A. is

2. B. against

3. B. disappointing

4. B. to have been born

5. B. her words  

Explanation:

1.The usage of ‘looks’ indicates that the sentence is in the present tense. Thus, the auxiliary ‘is’ should be used. 

2. Since the words “insured” and “theft” have been mentioned, the correct preposition would be “against”. You insure an asset against any mishap. Thus, option B is correct. 

3. We require an adjective to indicate the kind of result. Thus, the noun “disappointment” can be eliminated. “Disappointed” is incorrect as it can only be used in the context of people, but here a “result” is being talked about. “To disappoint” will convey the sense that the purpose of the result was to disappoint, which is not the case here. Hence “disappointing” is the best fit answer.

4.  “By” and “for” are inappropriate prepositions to be followed by the word “lucky”, and “to” must be used. We need the “to be” verb to indicate that the action of taking birth took place, thus, “have been born” is the correct answer. Also, since the sentence is in the passive voice, “have been born”, which is the passive form in past perfect, is correct.

5. To be ‘true to one’s words’ means to act as promised/ said earlier. Thus, option is the correct expression for the blank.

49.

In this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled A,B and C. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., A or B or C. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as D.A. With regard to interior decoratin, it is the attention given to the less overt aspects of using SpaceB. that give it life, an identity, a qualityC. that makes it exciting and unusaual.D. No error

Answer»

Correct option B. that give it life, an identity, a quality

Explanation:

The error lies in the second part of the sentence. The subject does not agree with the verb here. Since the subject “attention” is singular, the verb should be “gives” and not ‘give’.

50.

In this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled A,B and C. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., A or B or C. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as D.A. A small parcelB. of novels isC. better than none.D. No error

Answer»

Correct option D. No error

Explanation:

The sentence has no error and has been correctly structured.