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Right ANSWER is (a) Ampulla

Easy explanation: The egg is released and AWAITS in ampulla for the SPERM. The SPERMS cross the reproductive TRACT barriers before reaching the ampulla to fertilize the egg.

Right option is (b) False

The EXPLANATION: Males usually release millions of sperm at each coitus. However, the female tract prevents most of them from reaching the fallopian tube with only ONE sperm being able to fertilize the egg. However, in rare cases where female releases two eggs (one from each ovary), there’s a probability of conceiving TWINS. THUS it is the number of eggs and not the number of sperm that determines the number of BABIES that the female can conceive.

The correct option is (a) Insemination

Easy explanation: Coitus or copulation is the process that leads to the release of SEMEN from the penis into the VAGINA. The SPERMS populate the vagina ALONG with other CONTENTS of semen. This process is called insemination.

The correct OPTION is (b) Vagina -> Cervix -> UTERUS -> OVIDUCT

Explanation: Sperms are released into the vagina. From here, they TRAVEL through the cervix and uterus before reaching oviduct or fallopian tube, where they can encounter an egg.

The correct choice is (b) MENOPAUSE

For explanation I would say: Menopause in humans occurs at an age of approximately 55 years. This is the last menstrual CYCLE. Thus the NORMAL REPRODUCTIVE phase lasts between menarche and menopause.

The CORRECT OPTION is (C) Estrogen

The explanation is: LH and FSH peak during the middle of the menstrual cycle. Progesterone peaks after release of egg due to formation of corpus LUTEUM. Estrogen peaks twice. First during the ovulation and second prior to menstruation.

Correct choice is (B) Degeneration

The explanation: Corpus luteum releases PROGESTERONE to support endometrium required for homing the EMBRYO. But if the egg is not fertilized, the endometrium is useless and should be RELEASED off to save energy. Thus corpus luteum is degraded.

Correct answer is (d) CORPEUS luteum

The BEST I can explain: Corpeus luteum is FORMED by the degeneration of Graafian FOLLICLE after it releases an EGG. This degenerating tissue releases progesterone to maintain the proper function and structure of endometrium.

Right choice is (d) Progesterone

Explanation: Progesterone is secreted by the CORPUS luteum. It is RESPONSIBLE for PROPER maintenance of the embryo so that if an egg is fertilized, the DEVELOPING embryo can get a proper ATTACHMENT and doesn’t exit through vagina.

The correct OPTION is (a) secretory phase

The BEST I can EXPLAIN: Luteal phase involves the rupture of the Graafian follicle and the RELEASE of egg from the ovary. Hence it is ALSO called the secretory phase.

Right option is (b) LH

Explanation: LH is released by the anterior pituitary. It reaches a PEAK level during the MIDDLE of menstrual cycle. This is called LH SURGE. It acts on Graafian follicles causing their rupture and release of egg in the PROCESS of ovulation.

Right answer is (c) PEAKING of progesterone

For explanation I would say: FOLLICULAR phase is an important phase to ensure the DEVELOPMENT of egg and MATURATION of the follicle it is contained in. It is also characterized by the thickening of uterine wall. These changes are brought about the pituitary hormones LH and FSH and the ovarian hormone estrogen. Progesterone is required for egg RELEASE and it peaks during the luteal phase.

The correct option is (d) LH and FSH

Explanation: The anterior PITUITARY releases Luteinizing Hormone and Follicle Stimulating Hormone as the proliferative PHASE or follicular phase progresses. Both of these HORMONES ALONG with the ovarian hormone estrogen is responsible for the REGENERATION of uterine wall and maturation of follicles.

The correct answer is (b) Follicular phase

Easy EXPLANATION: Primary follicles mature with the addition of theca, granulosa cells, and antrum to FORM a mature Graafian FOLLICLE. All of these CHANGES along with the COMPLETION of the first round of meiosis occurs during the follicular phase also otherwise called as the proliferative phase.

Right CHOICE is (b) FOLLICULAR phase

To explain I would say: The menstrual phase involves shredding of the UTERINE endometrium. Right after MENSES, the follicular phase onsets. During this phase, the endometrium starts to regenerate.

Correct OPTION is (c) menstrual phase

The BEST I can EXPLAIN: The menstrual cycle begins with release of BLOOD and mucus. This DISCHARGE is called menses. This phase of the menstrual cycle is hence called the menstrual phase.

Correct choice is (d) Gyming

Explanation: Menstrual cycle OCCURS as a result of the need to remove the unfertilized egg. Thus if egg is fertilized, the menstrual cycle is skipped. However, other factors like BAD health, anxiety, and stress, etc. can also lead to improper BODY rhythm and thus a miss in the menstrual cycle. Gyming and EXERCISE are healthy habits and KEEPS your body in check. Thus won’t affect your body rhythm.

The correct OPTION is (b) Unfertilized egg

The best I can EXPLAIN: The menstrual CYCLE is a natural phenomenon. It arises as the unfertilized egg needs to be released along with the thick endometrium that was FORMED in anticipation of the would-be embryo.

Correct option is (c) Menses

Explanation: Menses is the SHEDDING of the endometrial lining along with the UNFERTILIZED EGG. Thus it is COMPOSED of blood and tissue discharge. It lasts for 3-5 days.

The correct CHOICE is (d) Endometrium

Easy explanation: Uterus is composed of THREE layers of tissues. The OUTER perimetrium holds uterus in SHAPE. The MIDDLE myometrium is responsible for contractions while the innermost endometrium is the layer that holds the egg. During menstruation, the inner layer is shredded off along with the egg and the supplying blood vessels.

Correct answer is (b) False

The best explanation: The menstrual cycle is TIMED from the day of BLEED to the day before the next bleed. OVULATION or RELEASE of egg happens on 14th to 15th day of the menstrual cycle.

The correct option is (a) True

Best explanation: Menstruation OCCURS in all primates. It varies across SPECIES lasting from days to months. In HUMANS, it lasts approximately for a lunar MONTH i.e., 28-29 days.

Right choice is (c) Menarche

The explanation: The FIRST menstruation occurs during PUBERTY in humans. This menstrual is called menarche, which MEANS the onset of menstruation and hence the ability to get FERTILIZED.

Right answer is (d) Hair follicle

The BEST I can explain: OVARY has four DIFFERENT TYPES of follicles, namely: Primary follicle, secondary follicle, TERTIARY follicle, and Graafian follicle. Hair follicles are present beneath the epithelium under the skin.

Right choice is (c) Provide a hostile environment for the development of the EMBRYO

Best explanation: The ovary is the place where the oocyte is developed from the oogonia. It houses follicles that nourish and protect eggs before they are released in the process of ovulation for fertilization. It also PRODUCES sex hormones LIKE ESTROGEN, which are ESSENTIAL for the development of secondary sexual characteristics in females. It does not hold the developing embryo. The embryo is held in the uterus.

Correct option is (a) External cortex and internal MEDULLA

To ELABORATE: An ENVELOPE of epithelial tissue covers the ovarian stroma. The stroma is composed of two distinct parts. The outer part called cortex is composed of follicles and OOCYTES. The internal part is called the medulla and is composed of blood VESSELS, lymphatic ducts, and nerves.

The CORRECT answer is (a) Corpus luteum

For explanation: The Graafian follicle ruptures to release the egg into the FALLOPIAN tube. The ruptured Graafian follicle results in the FILLING of its lumen with theca and GRANULOSA cells, which pigment it WHITE. This degrading follicle is hence called corpus luteum, which is then transformed into corpus albicans.

The correct option is (a) graafian follicle

Easiest explanation: Primary oocyte completes the FIRST ROUND of MEIOSIS in the tertiary oocyte, THUS forming a secondary oocyte. The tertiary follicle further matures to form a Graafian follicle which ruptures and releases the secondary oocyte in the fallopian TUBE for fertilization.

The correct CHOICE is (d) TERTIARY follicle

The explanation: The OOGONIUM starts meiosis but is arrested at PROPHASE I, thereby forming primary oocyte. This oocyte then forms a primary, then secondary, and finally a tertiary follicle with the addition of granulosa cells, theca and ANTRUM. This stage of follicle promotes further division of primary oocyte. Thus the first division of meiosis is completed in the tertiary follicle.

The CORRECT option is (d) ANTRUM

Easy explanation: Primary FOLLICLE is formed by the primary oocyte arrested at Prophase I and enveloped by a LAYER of granulosa cells. These are then enveloped by a theca resulting in a secondary follicle, which further undergoes development resulting in the formation of a fluid-filled cavity called the antrum. This mature follicle is a tertiary follicle.

Right choice is (C) Theca

For explanation: UPON undergoing meiosis, the PRIMARY follicle is FORMED from the oogonium. These follicles are then surrounded by a protective coating of the theca, which supports further development and division of primary oocyte. This stage of the follicle is called the secondary follicle.

Correct CHOICE is (b) False

To elaborate: PRIMARY follicles are formed as a result of enveloping of primary oocytes by a layer of granulosa cells. These are formed during embryonic development and undergo a process of degeneration as the female matures to puberty. Hence the number of primary follicles that SURVIVE to puberty is far LESS, reaching only about 60,000-80,000 in each ovary.

Correct choice is (a) Granulosa cells

For EXPLANATION I WOULD SAY: Oogonium initiates the first round of meiosis but ends up GETTING arrested at Prophase I RESULTING in primary oocytes. These primary oocytes are then enveloped by a single layer of granulosa cells, thus forming a primary follicle.

Right option is (b) Secondary OOCYTE

The EXPLANATION is: Primary oocyte is FORMED during FETAL development. The secondary oocyte is formed during puberty and is present in the ovary until it is released after the rupture of the Graafian follicle that HOLDS it. Ovum is formed in the fallopian tube.

Right CHOICE is (b) OVUM and second polar body

Explanation: Secondary OOCYTE is formed as a result of the asymmetric division of primary oocyte, which also produces a tiny first polar body. Secondary oocyte further UNDERGOES another asymmetric division producing a LARGER ovum and a smaller second polar body.

Correct choice is (a) Primary oocyte: DIPLOID; Secondary oocyte: HAPLOID; Ovum: Haploid

Explanation: The diploid OOGONIUM GOES through the FIRST round of meiosis to form primary oocyte, which is arrested at Prophase I. Thus, the primary oocyte is also diploid. The division is completed after the formation of the secondary oocyte, which is haploid. The secondary oocyte undergoes another round of meiosis to form haploid ovum.

Correct answer is (a) Secondary oocyte and FIRST polar body

For explanation: The primary oocyte is arrested at PROPHASE I of meiosis, and the division is completed only in the tertiary FOLLICLE. This division is asymmetric and produces a large HAPLOID secondary oocyte and a small first polar body.

The CORRECT option is (b) asymmetric division

The best explanation: Asymmetric division REFERS to the unequal distribution of cytoplasm between the daughter cells. Primary oocyte undergoes the first round of meiosis, producing a large haploid secondary oocyte and a TINY first polar body. Thus this is an instance of asymmetric division.

The correct answer is (c) DIPLOID

The EXPLANATION is: Oogenesis is the production of a haploid SECONDARY oocyte from a diploid oogonium and in the process resulting in the production of two polar bodies, each of which is haploid. Naturally, a tetraploid person having tetraploid oogonia will produce diploid polar bodies and a diploid oocyte.

The correct answer is (a) True

The best I can explain: Oogenesis BEGINS with a single diploid oogonium arresting at Prophase I resulting in a primary oocyte. Each primary oocyte finishes the first round of meiosis to form one secondary oocyte and the first polar body. The secondary oocyte then UNDERGOES a second round of meiosis to create one egg and a second polar body. And no more primary oocytes are added during the lifetime of the female. Instead, most primary oocytes DEGENERATE as the female ATTAINS puberty. This LIMITS the number of eggs that can be produced to less than 6 million.

Right option is (a) Prophase I

The best explanation: OOGONIA are FORMED during FETAL development. Soon they start undergoing MEIOSIS but are arrested at Prophase I awaiting further cues of division. Oogonia at this stage are called primary OOCYTES.

Correct choice is (C) OOGENESIS

Best explanation: Spermatogenesis is the process of the production of MATURE sperms from spermatogonia, while oogenesis is the process of the formation of mature FEMALE GAMETES from oogonia.

Correct CHOICE is (c) Release of semen

Explanation: Testosterone secreted by Leydig CELLS STIMULATES spermatogenesis. It also acts on accessory ducts and glands and maintains their proper FUNCTION. Release of SPERMS and semen is not coordinated by testosterone.

Right option is (d) embryonic development

Explanation: OOGENESIS starts right from the embryonic development STAGE. Oogonia divide to form primary OOCYTES that are ARRESTED at Prophase I.