InterviewSolution
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InterviewSolution
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`cos^(- 1)sqrt((a-x)/(a-b))=sin^(- 1)sqrt((x-b)/(a-b))` is possible ,ifA. `a gt x gt b`B. `a lt x lt b`C. `a = x = b`D. `a gt b` and x takes any value |
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Answer» Correct Answer - A::B `cos^(-1)(sqrt((a-x)/(a-b)))=sin^(-1)(sqrt(1-(a-x)/(a-b)))` `=sin^(-1)(sqrt((x-b)/(a-b)))` `therefore` We must have `(a-x)/(a-b)gt 0` and `(x-b)/(a-b)gt 0` `0 le (a-x)/(a-b)lt 1` and `0 le (x-b)/(a-b)lt 1` From both, we get `0 le (a-x)/(a-b)lt 1` `therefore a gt x gt b` or `a lt x lt b` |
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