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| 1. |
Let `x in(1,oo)` and `n` be a positive integer greater than `1`. If `f_n (x) =n/(1/log_2x+1/log_3x+...+1/log_nx)` , then `(n!)^(f_n (x))`equals toA. `n^(x)`B. `x^(n)`C. `n^(n)`D. `n^(nx)` |
| Answer» Correct Answer - B | |