Explore topic-wise InterviewSolutions in Current Affairs.

This section includes 7 InterviewSolutions, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Current Affairs knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

Identify the person from the following description.a. He was awarded the 'Third Class of the Star of India reward by British.b. He had established the Translation Society in 1864.c. He opposed the nationalism of Congress.d. He established the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental School.1. Barrister Muhammad Ali Jinnah2. Sir Sayyed Ahmed Khan 3. Poet Muhammad Iqbal4. Badruddin Tayyabji

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Sir Sayyed Ahmed Khan 

The correct answer is Sir Sayyed Ahmed Khan.

  • Sir Sayyed Ahmed Khan:
    • Sir Syed Ahmed Khan was born in Delhi, Mughal Empire.
    • He was the most eminent Muslim reformist and philosopher of the 19th century.
    • Sir Syed worked for modern scientific education for Muslims to advance their conditions.
    • He set up many educational institutes the most significant was the Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College (MAOC) which he set up in 1875.
      • This renamed later as the Aligarh Muslim University.
    • In 1864 Syed formed a Translation Society which used to translate the scientific books of English and other European languages into Urdu and Hindi.
      • This society later emerged into the Scientific Society of Aligarh.
    • The MAOC played an instrumental role in the Aligarh Movement of the 19th century which proved a movement of a renaissance among Indian Muslims.
    • He was awarded by knighthood because of his loyalty towards Britishers.
    • He was awarded the 'Third Class of the Star of India reward by British.
    • He opposed the nationalism of Congress.
    • Although he was of secular nature but was much worried about Muslim people education and backwardness.

  • Barrister Muhammad Ali Jinnah​:
    • After completing his barrister in England he made his strong reputation in INC in the t two decades of 20th century.
    • Jinnah served as the leader of the All-India Muslim League from 1913 until Pakistan's independence on 14 August 1947.
    • He also served as Pakistan's first Governor-General until his death.
    • By 1940, he had come to believe that Muslims of the Indian subcontinent should have their own state to avoid the possible marginalised and backward status they may gain in a Hindu-Muslim state.
    • By 1940, he had come to believe that Muslims of the Indian subcontinent should have their own state to avoid the possible marginalised and backward status they may gain in a Hindu-Muslim state.
    • In 1940 under the leadership of Jinnah Muslim league passed the resolution known as Lahore Resolution, demanding a separate nation.
    • During the Second World War, the League gained strength and in the elections held after the war, it won most of the seats reserved for Muslims.
    • Due to deadlock over this issue Congress and the Muslim League could not reach a power-sharing formula for the subcontinent to be united as a single state, leads to independence of a predominantly Hindu India, and for a Muslim-majority state of Pakistan.
  • Poet Muhammad Iqbal:
    • Muhammad Iqbal was a poet, philosopher and a political leader.
    •  He shaped the history of India and Pakistan. although his early years, Iqbal was a nationalist poet who believed in unity and tolerance.
    • With his compositions such as Tarana-i-hind; sare Jahan Se acha Hindustan Hamara. Several of his writings are about unity. But in his later years, he started getting biased towards Islam and started writing about the revival of its ancient glory. 
  • Badruddin Tayyabji:
    • Badruddin Tayyabji was the first Muslim president INC. (overall third)
    • He was a lawyer, an activist and a politician.
    • He was the first Indian to practise as a lawyer in High Court of Bombay.
    • Along with Pherozeshah Mehta and Telang, he formed the Bombay Presidency Association in 1885, a body which championed Indian interests.
2.

In which of the following fertilization needs water medium- (a) Angiosperms (b) Bryophytes (c) Gymnosperms (d) All 

Answer»

Bryophytes is fertilization needs water medium.

3.

Binary fission is found in- (a) Amoeba (b) Paramoecium  (c) Water hyacinth (d) Amoeba and Paramoecium both

Answer»

Binary fission is found in both Amoeba and Paramoecium. 

4.

Why does moon have very cold and very hot temperature variations eg, from -190°C to 110°C even though it is at the same distance from the sun as the earth is?

Answer»

There is absence of atmosphere on the moon,so no part of heat remains trapped in its atmosphere. That is why in day time moon gets hot and in night it cools down and cools fast and all heat is radiated off into the space there by making variation of moon’s surface temperature extreme.

5.

Select the odd one out with respect to haemophilia- (a) X–linked dominant disorder (b) Bleedder’s disease (c) Criss-cross inheritance (d) X-linked recessive disorder

Answer» (a) X–linked dominant disorder
6.

Which of the following is the high-milk yielding variety of cow ? (a) Dorset (b) Holstein (c) Pashmina (d) Nellore

Answer»

Holstein  is the high-milk yielding variety of cow.

7.

Minimata disease is due to pollutant- (a) SO2 (b) H2S (c) Mercury (d) Lead

Answer»

 Minimata disease is due to Mercury pollutant 

8.

If a smart material changes viscosity due to applied magnetic field, it is a. Magnetorheological b. photovoltaicc. piezoelectric d. liquid crystal

Answer»

a. Magnetorheological 

9.

What is Ignition temperature ?1. The highest temperature reached on burning combustible material.2. The temperature at which crackers explode without being ignited.3. The lowest temperature at which a substance catches fire.4. The temperature at which a combustible substance is stored.

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : The lowest temperature at which a substance catches fire.

The correct answer is Lowest temperature at which a substance catches fire.

  • The ignition temperature of a substance is the least temperature at which the substance starts combustion.
  • Substances that spontaneously ignite in a normal atmosphere at naturally ambient temperatures are termed pyrophoric.
  • The autoignition temperature is also known as the kindling point.
  • The kindling point of a substance is the lowest temperature in which it spontaneously ignites in a normal atmosphere without an external source of ignition, such as a flame or spark. 

Autoignition temperature of some substances:

  • Diesel - 210 °C
  • Ethanol - 363 °C
  • Gasoline (petrol) - 280 °C
  • Vegetable oil  - 424 °C
10.

Application areas for smart rheological fluids a. Automotive tire b. clutch c. chair/bed d. All the above

Answer»

d. All the above

11.

Material system used in eyeglass frames, medical stent & actuators that eject disks in laptop a. Pyroelectric b. shape memory alloys c. piezoelectric d. liquid crystal

Answer»

b. shape memory alloys 

12.

Magnetorheological fluids are used in a. Vibration control b. pressure control c. temperature control d. photovoltaics

Answer»

a. Vibration control

13.

Material system used in microphones, speakers, vibration reducing skis & doorbell pusher a. Pyroelectric b. photovoltaic c. piezoelectric d. liquid crystal 

Answer»

c. piezoelectric 

14.

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are travelling in three different Cars namely X, Y and Z, but not necessarily in the same order. There are at least two persons in each Car and each Car has persons of both the sexes. Out of eight persons three are females. All of them like different colours viz, Red, Green, Yellow, Blue,Black, White, Grey and Purple but not necessarily in the same order. One female does not like Grey or White colour. D is travelling with G in the Car Z. G likes Black colour. The persons who like Red and Purple colours, are travelling in the same Car. E does not like Purple colour and he is not travelling with H in the same car. A does not like purple nor Red colour. His travelling in the Car Y. B, C and H are females in the group. B likes Blue colour and travels with the person who likes Black colour. Red and Green colours liked by female members. The person who is travelling with H, likes Grey colour. One of the persons travelling in Car Z likes Yellow colour. Who among the following is/are travelling with female member C ?A. E and GB. A and DC. E and FD. D and E

Answer» Correct Answer - C
E and F are travelling with C
15.

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are travelling in three different Cars namely X, Y and Z, but not necessarily in the same order. There are at least two persons in each Car and each Car has persons of both the sexes. Out of eight persons three are females. All of them like different colours viz, Red, Green, Yellow, Blue,Black, White, Grey and Purple but not necessarily in the same order. One female does not like Grey or White colour. D is travelling with G in the Car Z. G likes Black colour. The persons who like Red and Purple colours, are travelling in the same Car. E does not like Purple colour and he is not travelling with H in the same car. A does not like purple nor Red colour. His travelling in the Car Y. B, C and H are females in the group. B likes Blue colour and travels with the person who likes Black colour. Red and Green colours liked by female members. The person who is travelling with H, likes Grey colour. One of the persons travelling in Car Z likes Yellow colour. Which of the following combinations of Person-Car-Colour is not correct ?A. C-X-RedB. F-X-PurpleC. G-Z-BlackD. E-Y-Grey

Answer» Correct Answer - D
The combination E-Y-Grey is not correct
E travels in Car X and he likes white colour
16.

Among five persons - P, Q, R, S and T- each has different height. Only two persons are shorter than S. T is shorter than S but taller than R. The one who is the second tallest among them is of 158 centimetre Which of the following is possibly the height of Q ?A. 148 cmB. 156 cmC. 152 cmD. 158 cm

Answer» Correct Answer - D
P gt Q gt S gt T gt R or Q gt P gt S gt T gt R
Q is either 158 cm high or more than 158 cm
17.

Among five persons - P, Q, R, S and T- each has different height. Only two persons are shorter than S. T is shorter than S but taller than R. The one who is the second tallest among them is of 158 centimetre How many persons are shorter than Q ?A. TwoB. ThreeC. FourD. Cannot be determined

Answer» Correct Answer - D
P gt Q gt S gt T gt R or Q gt P gt S gt T gt R
Either three of four persons are shorter than Q
P gt Q gt S gt T gt T or Q gt P gt S gt Tgt R
18.

Among five persons - P, Q, R, S and T- each has different height. Only two persons are shorter than S. T is shorter than S but taller than R. The one who is the second tallest among them is of 158 centimetre Which of the following statement is definitely true with respect to the given information ?A. R is definitely 150 cmB. None of the given statements is trueC. T is shorter than SD. Q is shorter than S

Answer» Correct Answer - C
P gt Q gt S gt T gt R or Q gt P gt S gt T gt R
It is clear that T is shorter than S .
19.

Two statements are given - one labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled Reason (R). Assertion: RNA polymerases are able to catalyse all three steps of translation. Reason: RNA polymerases contain an initiation factor and a termination factor in them. Which of the following is correct? A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of the assertion. B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion. C. A is true, but R is false. D. A is false, but R is true.

Answer»

C. A is true, but R is false. 

20.

Explain the different steps involved in translation.

Answer»

Translation in evkaryotes : 

  • Charning of tRNA (amninoacylation of tRNA) : activation of animo acids in the presence of ATP and their linking to specific tRNA. 
  • Binding of the ribosome (small sub unit) to mRNA at the initiator codon (AUG) 
  • Binding of the initaitor tRNA carrying to amino acid (methionine) to the initiator codon to initiate protein synthesis. 
  • Movement of ribosome from codon to codon along the mRNA and adding of amino acids (linked to tRNA) one by one – elongation of polypeptide chain. 
  • Binding of the release factor to the stop codon located at the 3’ end of mRNA, terminating transulation and releasing the polypeptide from ribosome.
21.

What is autogamy? Explain the devices that the plants have developed to prevent this.

Answer»

Autogamy: 

Self pollination in which there is transfer of pollen grains from the anters to the stigma at the same flower. 

Devices in flowering plants to prevent autogamy: 

1. Release of pollen grains before the stigma becomes receptive or stigma becomes receptive much before the release of pollen grains. 

2. Placement of anthers and stigma at different positions so that pollen cannot come in contact with the stigma of the same flower. 

3. Self incompatibility – Genetic mechanism which inhibits the germination of pollen grain or growth of the pollen tube inside the style, thus preventing the fertilization process. 

4. Unsexually : Production to unisexual flowers (male and female flowers on different plants or on the same plant).

22.

Give the scientific names of rock bee and little bee.

Answer» Rock bee : Apis dorsata.
Little bee : Apis florea.
23.

Why are prawns and lobsters considered as important fishery resources?

Answer» Prawns and lobsters have high market value all over the world, therefore they are considered as important fishery resources.
24.

Charvaka philosophical system was also called:1. Astika system2. Mimansa system3. Vaisesika system4. Lokayata system

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : Lokayata system

The correct answer is Lokayata system.

  • Charvaka philosophical system 
    • It is also called Lokayata Philosophy-the philosophy of masses.
    • It was developed around c. 600 BCE.
    • It rejected all supernatural claims, all religious authority and scripture.
    • It says that the ultimate good in life is a pleasure.
    •  It emphasised perception/evidence (pramana) and observation (anubhava) of the real, material world.

  • Astika system is defined as one that accepts the authority of the Vedas, the superiority of the Brahmans, and a society made up of the four traditional classes (varna).
  • Mimamsa system provides rules for interpreting the early Hindu scriptures known as the Vedas and offers a philosophical rationale for observing Vedic rituals.
  • Vaisesika system - According to the Vaisesika system all objects of valid knowledge come under seven categories- Substance (Dravya), Quality (Guṇa), Action (Karma), Generality (Sāmānya), Particularly (Vaiśeṣa), Inherence (Samavāya), Non-existence (abhāva).
25.

What should be the structure of vigilance mechanism?

Answer»

All States should make arrangement for a three-tier vigilance mechanism:

i. State: At the State level, a Vigilance Cell consisting of a Chief Vigilance Officer (CVO) should be set up. The CVO may be a senior government officer or a retired officer supported by at least two senior officials (serving or retired), one Civil Engineer and an Auditor.

ii. District: At the district level, a Vigilance Cell will be set up. The cell will be headed by a district level officer and supported by an Engineer and an Auditor (of appropriate seniority). Engineer and Auditor may also be hired/appointed on contract.

iii.Local level (village): At the local level, Vigilance and Monitoring Committee should consist of about ten members half of whom shall be women with representation for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in proportion to their population. Members of the Vigilance and Monitoring Committee may be identified from among local school teachers, anganwadi workers, SelfHelp Group members, Social Audit volunteers, members of various Community Based Organisations, user groups, youth clubs etc. The Vigilance and Monitoring Committee team should be appointed/nominated/elected by the Gram Sabha for a period of 6 months but not exceeding one year. The State Government may consider providing an honorarium to the members of the Vigilance and Monitoring Committee for the period of time that they are required to give every month.

26.

What are different modules available in this portal?

Answer»

In this portal, modules are available for works, workers and fund management. The details are as follows:

  • The portal encapsulates several modules that are required in different processes of implementation of MGNREGA. These have been classified as:

i. Core Modules and 

ii. Support Modules.

“Core Modules” (“work”, “worker”, “funds”, “e-FMS” and “Labour Budget”) capture details that enable booking of expenditure in NREGASoft.

  • Worker Management Module of the software captures registration, demand for work, workallocation and attendance recording in muster rolls.
  •  The software also has the provision to enable payment of wages through bank/post office asit captures the bank/post office account number, bank/post office name, branch name for all the persons who have demanded work.
  • Works Management Module captures detailed information about the various works proposedor undertaken under the scheme at various levels.
  •  It facilitates online approval of projects and keeps track of time taken for approval of project.Each project is provided a unique ID and status of work is maintained in the system.
  • Fund Management Module captures the funds transferred from MoRD/States to districtsand then to programme officers/Panchayats and expenditure incurred by various implementing agencies on labour, material and contingency.
  •  e-FMS Module provides a platform for making e-payments to workers, staff and vendors (wages, material and administrative expenses) using the payment network of financial Institution (e.g. NEFT/ RTGS/ ECS/ Sanchay Post), thus addressing the issue of delay in payments to a larger extent and making the MIS real time transaction based.
  • Labour Budget Module contains all required information for preparation of Labour Budget. Itallows planning and preparing the labour budget for each Gram Panchayat.
  • The module is so designed that it enables each GP to upload its labour budget which gets consolidated at every level from block up to the State level.
  • Social Audit Module allows the Gram Panchayat to plan for the social audit and prepare social audit calendar. It has features to upload issues/ Grievances that rose during the social audit as well as the minutes of meetings. Observations of the documents verified during the social audit are also captured through this module.
  • Cost Estimation Module makes detailed estimates of the works proposed or taken up under MGNREGA e.g. construction of Tank, Well, Sluice Gate, Earthen road, Cement concrete road etc.
  • Grievance Redressal System allows a worker/citizen to lodge complaint and trace the subsequent response.
  • Staffing Position Module captures name and contact details of all the officials, planning and implementing agencies from Gram Panchayat to Ministry of Rural Development involved in MGNREGA.
  •  Knowledge Network/ Solution Exchange provides a common platform to all stakeholders to exchange their views, pose queries to other stakeholder/experts and get responses, exhibit their best practices.
27.

Who are the stakeholders in the portal?

Answer»

The portal (http://nrega.nic.in) provides a single point access to the following stakeholders: 

i. Citizens 

ii. Workers 

iii. Gram Panchayats, Block Panchayats, Zilla Panchayats 

iv. Programme officers 

v. District Programme Coordinators 

vi. Implementing agencies other than PRIs 

vii. State RD Departments 

viii. Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India 

ix. Bank & Post Offices 

x. Social Audit Agencies 

xi. Engineers.

28.

What are the roles and responsibilities of different stakeholders in the conduct of social audit?

Answer»

Programme Officer shall ensure that all the required information and records of all implementing agencies are properly collated in the requisite formats; and provided along with photocopies to the Social Audit Unit for facilitating conduct of social audit at least fifteen days in advance of the scheduled date of meeting of the GS.

District Programme Coordinator (DPC) shall ensure that all records for conduct of social audit are furnished to the Social Audit Unit by PO. Ensure that time-bound corrective action (including initiating criminal and civil proceedings or termination of services) is taken on the social audit report. Take steps to recover the amount improperly utilised and issue receipts or acknowledgements for amount so recovered.

The Social Audit Unit shall be responsible for deploying suitable resource persons at village, block, district and State level.

  • Shall identify, train and deploy suitable resource persons at village, block, district and State level drawing from primary stakeholders and other civil society organisations having knowledge and experience of working for the rights of the people.
  • The Social Audit Unit will create awareness amongst the labourers about their rights and entitlements under the Act, and facilitate verification of records with primary stakeholders and worksites.
  • Trained resource persons should be identified and they in turn train the village community in carrying out the verification process.
  • The Social Audit Unit shall be responsible to prepare social audit reporting formats, resource material, guidelines and manuals for the social audit process.
  • Facilitate verification of records with primary stakeholders and conduct door-to-door visits to meet beneficiaries of the MGNREGS and also physically verify the project sites and come out with detailed report.
  • Social Audit Unit will be responsible to host the social audit reports including action taken reports in the public domain.

The State Government shall be responsible for follow-up action on the findings of the social audit.

State Employment Guarantee Council (SEGC) shall monitor the action taken by the State Government and incorporate the Action Taken Report in the annual report to be laid before the State Legislature by the State Government.

Central Government provides funds to meet the cost of establishing the Social Audit Unit. Cost of conducting social audit shall be met from administrative expenses.

Central Employment Guarantee Council (CEGC) shall monitor implementation of MGNREG Audit of Scheme Rules, 2011 and action taken on social audit reports and report the same in the Annual Report to be laid before the Parliament.

29.

The list of unwanted guest is called a ____

Answer»

The list of unwanted guest is called a BLACK LIST.

30.

The word Hospitality means ___

Answer»

The word Hospitality means FRIENDLY TREATMENT.

31.

____ is referred to as nerve centre of the front office department.

Answer»

FRONT DESK is referred to as nerve centre of the front office department.

32.

Hotels are _____ establishment providing boarding and lodging.

Answer»

Hotels are COMMERCIAL establishment providing boarding and lodging.

33.

“The function and the shape of the family were completely transformed by life in the industrial city.” Clarify the statement with regard to urbanization that happened in England in the 18th century.

Answer»

(a) Ties between members of households loosened, and among the working class the institution of marriage tended to break down. 

(b) Women of the upper and middle classes in Britain, on the other hand, faced increasingly higher levels of isolation, although their lives were made easier by domestic maids who cooked, cleaned and cared for young children on low wages. 

(c) Women who worked for wages had some control over their lives, particularly among the lower social classes. However, many social reformers felt that the family as an institution had broken down, and needed to be saved or reconstructed by pushing these women back into the home. 

(d) The city encouraged a new spirit of individualism among both men and women, and a freedom from the collective values that were a feature of the smaller rural communities. 

(e) But men and women did not have equal access to this new urban space. As women lost their industrial jobs and conservative people railed against their presence in public spaces, women were forced to withdraw into their homes.

34.

____ to hear from Lillian after so many years. A) Consequently, nice B) It was nice C) That was nice D) She was nice

Answer»

Correct option is B) It was nice

35.

The primary function of a distribution channel is to bridge the gap between ____ and ___

Answer»

The primary function of a distribution channel is to bridge the gap between PRODUCTION and CONSUMPTION.

36.

How did people belonging to different communities, regions or language groups in India develop a sense of collective belonging?

Answer»

This sense of collective belonging came partly through the experience of united struggles. But there were also a variety of cultural processes through which nationalism captured people’s imagination. History and fiction, folklore and songs, popular prints and symbols, all played a part in the making of nationalism.

  • The identity of the nation is most often symbolised in a figure or image. This helps create an image with which people can identify the nation. It was in the twentieth century, with the growth of nationalism, that the identity of India came to be visually associated with the image of Bharat Mata. The image was first created by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay. 
  • In the 1870s he wrote ‘Vande Mataram’ as a hymn to the motherland. Later it was included in his novel Anandamath and widely sung during the Swadeshi movement in Bengal. 
  • Moved by the Swadeshi movement, Abanindranath Tagore painted his famous image of Bharat Mata. In this painting Bharat Mata is portrayed as an ascetic figure; she is calm, composed, divine and spiritual. 
  • Ideas of nationalism also developed through a movement to revive Indian folklore. In latenineteenth-century India, nationalists began recording folk tales sung by bards and they toured villages to gather folk songs and legends. 
  • As the national movement developed, nationalist leaders became more and more aware of such icons and symbols in unifying people and inspiring in them a feeling of nationalism.
  • During the Swadeshi movement in Bengal, a tricolour flag (red, green and yellow) was designed. It had eight lotuses representing eight provinces of British India, and a crescent moon, representing Hindus and Muslims. By 1921, Gandhiji had designed the Swaraj flag. It was again a tricolour (red, green and white) and had a spinning wheel in the centre, representing the Gandhian ideal of self-help. Carrying the flag, holding it aloft, during marches became a symbol of defiance. 
  • Another means of creating a feeling of nationalism was through reinterpretation of history. By the end of the nineteenth century many Indians began feeling that to instill a sense of pride in the nation, Indian history had to be thought about differently. 
37.

These are nice apples. How ____ a kilo. A) many are there B) much are there C) much are they D) many are they

Answer»

Correct option is C) much are they

38.

Very small hotels ____ this serve good food. A) as B) with C) in D) like

Answer»

Correct option is D) like

39.

HRACC stands for _____

Answer»

HRACC stands for HOTEL AND RESTAURANT APPROVAL AND CLASSIFICATION COMMITTEE.

40.

Define character set, integer constant, and floating-point constants.

Answer»

Character set is a set of symbols that a programming language identifies and uses in writing data and instructions in a programming language. Integer constants are whole numbers without any fractional part. Floating-point constants are numeric values that contain a decimal point and can contain exponents also. 

41.

Write the general structure of C++ program and explain any three components.

Answer»

#include<iostream>

//main()

int main()

{

cout<<""Hello World";//  prints Hello World

return 0;

}

The various parts of the above program: headers, which contain information that is either necessary or useful to program. For this program, the header is needed.

1. The next line // main() is where the program execution begins. It is a single-line comment available in C++. Single-line comments begin with // and stop at the end of the line.

2.  The line int main() is the main function where program execution begins.

3.  The pair of {} indicates the body of the main function.

4.  The next line cout<< “Hello World.”; causes the message “Hello World” to be displayed on the screen.

5.  The next line return 0; terminates main( )function and causes it to return the value 0 to the calling process.

42.

____ is the largest source of revenue for hotels.

Answer»

ACCOMMODATION is the largest source of revenue for hotels.

43.

Explain manipulators. 

Answer»

1.  A manipulator in C++ is used to control the formatting of output and/or input values.

2. Manipulators can only be present in Input/Output statements. The ‘end!’ manipulator causes a newline character to be output.

3.  ‘end1’ is defined in the header file and can be used as long as the header file has been included.

44.

Give the list of statements which can be used and which cannot be used in structured programming. 

Answer»

List of statements that can be used:

  • sequence of sequentially executed statements.
  • conditional execution of statements 
  • iteration execution statements.

List of statements that cannot be used:

  • go to statement
  • break or continue statement
  • multiple exit points.
45.

____ is the backbone of any industry to retain the customers.

Answer»

CUSTOMER SERVICE is the backbone of any industry to retain the customers.

46.

Explain the following? a) Allowance /Discount voucher b) Commission voucher

Answer»

a) Guest allowance is the cash paid to the guest by hotel on the following situations.

  • In case of wrong posting of bills in guest folio, an allowance voucher is prepared by cashier to compensate the charges in guest account, due to any human error.
  • If a guest has paid a large sum of money at the time of check-in and the final bill is less than that of money paid during check-in, the hotel will pay back the remaining amount by raising guest allowance voucher.
  • Incase an airline operator sends a group of guests and guarantees for repayment of bills on behalf of guest.

Guest allowance are strictly monitored and controlled by lobby manager. The front desk cashier need to get an approval from competent authority to pass the allowance to make payment to guests.

b) Whenever any commission is paid by front office cashier for any guest or third party, commission voucher is prepared.

Mostly commission vouchers are prepared for the following reasons:

a) Generally a travel agent or tour operator who provide business to hotel by providing room reservation for group guests on a commission basis of 10 percent on room rates excluding taxes. 

b) A taxi driver who brings walk-in guest to the hotel. If the guest stays in the hotel by reserving a room the hotel pays commission to driver. 

c) Any agency which are working on commission basis.

47.

Which of the following is NOT related to energy auditing?1. Detailed audit2. Walkthrough audit3. Analysing4. Benchmarking

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Analysing

Energy Audit:

An energy audit is an inspection survey and an analysis of energy flows for energy conservation in a building. It may include a process or system to reduce the amount of energy input into the system without negatively affecting the output.

Energy audit types:

Preliminary audit:

  • The preliminary audit (alternatively called a simple audit, screening audit, or walk-through audit) is the simplest and quickest type of audit.
  • It involves minimal interviews with site-operating personnel, a brief review of facility utility bills and other operating data, and a walk-through of the facility to become familiar with the building operation and to identify any glaring areas of energy waste or inefficiency.

Investment Grade Audit(IGA):

  • An investment-grade audit is the most detailed energy audit.
  • It analyzes the financial aspects of energy savings and the return on investment from potential changes or upgrades.
  • A building operator typically uses the investment-grade audit as a budgeting tool when planning facility upgrades.
  • This audit finalizes the modeling performed during a general audit and combines the information gathered with monetary figures.
  • Life-cycle cost analyses can determine the long-term cost savings associated with installing a new boiler, energy-saving windows, or fluorescent lighting.

Benchmarking:

  • Benchmarking mainly consists in comparing the measured consumption with reference consumption of other similar buildings or generated by simulation tools to identify excessive or unacceptable running costs.
  • As mentioned before, benchmarking is also necessary to identify buildings presenting interesting energy-saving potential. 

Detailed Energy Audit:

Detailed Energy Audit evaluates all systems and equipment which consume energy and the audit comprises a detailed study on energy savings and costs.

48.

Palace on wheels a luxury train is an example for ___

Answer»

Palace on wheels a luxury train is an example for ROTEL.

49.

What is array of structures? Give an example. 

Answer»

The array of structures is a collection of array elements, in which each element is a structure ‘ in an array.

Example: struct student st[ 100];

50.

Tie and Dye is a _____dyeing technique A] Discharge B] Resist C] Dyed D] None of the above

Answer»

[B] Resist

Tie and Dye is a Resist dyeing technique.