This section includes 7 InterviewSolutions, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Current Affairs knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.
| 1. |
The pressure along the melting curve is(a) Sublimation pressure(b) Saturation pressure(c) Condensation pressure(d) None of the mentioned |
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Answer» The correct choice is (a) Sublimation pressure To explain: The pressure along the melting curve is Sublimation pressure. |
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| 2. |
“It checks if the value of the left operand is less than or equal to the value of the right operand, if yes then the condition becomes true”. Identify the operator. |
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Answer» Answer is <= |
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| 3. |
What is used as a light source in ear oximeter?(a) Mercury-vapor lamp(b) Sodium-vapor lamp(c) Tungsten-iodine lamp(d) Sulfur lamp |
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Answer» Right choice is (c) Tungsten-iodine lamp Easy explanation: The light source is a tungsten-iodine lamp that has a high output in the spectrum of interest. A lens system collimates the light beam and directs it through thin-film interference filters that provide wavelength selection. |
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| 4. |
How many steps are there in QRS detection?(a) Three steps(b) Two steps(c) Four steps(d) One step |
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Answer» The correct answer is (b) Two steps Easiest explanation: QRS detection is now almost universally performed digitally in a two-step process. The ECG is first preprocessed to enhance the QRS complex while suppressing noise, artifact and non-QRS portions of the ECG. The output of the preprocessor stage is subjected to a decision rule that confirms the detection of QRS if the processor output exceeds a threshold. |
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| 5. |
_________ is based on analyzing the shape of the QRS complexes and separating beats into groups or clusters.(a) Timing classification(b) Morphology characterization(c) Beat labeling(d) Noise detection |
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Answer» Correct answer is (b) Morphology characterization To explain I would say: Morphology characterization is based on analyzing the shape of the QRS complexes and separating beats into groups or clusters of similar morphology. Most algorithms for real time arrhythmia analysis maintain no more than 10-20 clusters at a time, order to limit the amount of computation needed to assign a QRS complex to a cluster. |
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| 6. |
A point source emits sound equally in all directions in a non-absorbing medium. Two point `P` and `Q` are at distance of `2 m` and `3 m` respectively from the source. The ratio of the intensities of the wave at `P` and `Q` is :A. `9:4`B. `2:3`C. `3:2`D. `4:9` |
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Answer» Correct Answer - a The average power per unit area that is incident perpendicular to the direction of propagation is called intensity, i.e,. `I=(P)/(4pir^(2))` or `I prop (1)/(r^(2))implies (I_(1))/(I_(2))=((r_(2))/(r_(1)))^(2)` Hence, `r_(1)= 2m, r_(2)=3m` `:. (I_(1))/(I_(2))=((3)/(2))^(2)= (9)/(4)` |
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| 7. |
According to the international 10/20 system to measure EEG, odd number denotes which side of the brain?(a) left(b) right(c) top(d) front |
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Answer» Right choice is (a) left The best I can explain: The position of each electrode is specified using the International 10/20 system. Each electrode site is labeled with a letter and a number. Odd number denotes the left side of the head. |
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| 8. |
Which of the following is a preferred electrode for measuring EMG?(a) surface electrodes(b) needle electrodes(c) pregelled electrodes(d) scalp electrodes |
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Answer» The correct answer is (b) needle electrodes The best explanation: Electrodes for EMG work are usually of the needle type. Needle electrodes are used in clinical EMG, neurography and other electrophysiological measurements of the muscle tissues underneath the skin. Surface electrodes are preferred to measure ECG. Scalp electrodes for EEG. |
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| 9. |
Which rhythm is the principal component of the EEG that indicates the alertness of the brain?(a) theta rhythm(b) gamma rhythm(c) beta rhythm(d) alpha rhythm |
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Answer» Correct option is (d) alpha rhythm Explanation: The alpha rhythm is the principal component of the EEG and is an indicator of the state of alertness of the brain. It serves as an indicator of the depth of anesthesia in the operating room. The frequency of the EEG seems to be affected by the mental activity of a person. |
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| 10. |
Which of the following is a wireless ECG acquiring system?(a) pregelled disposable electrodes(b) limb electrodes(c) pasteless electrodes(d) smart pad |
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Answer» The correct option is (d) smart pad The explanation: Smart pad is a system that displays patients electrocardiogram signals without adhesive pads, wires or active intervention from a clinician. The system automatically selects three electrodes from an array of Cu/Ni fabric based electrodes patterned on a thin pad on which the patient lies. The selected electrodes are used to provide a differential 3 lead measurement of the patient’s ECG, which is then transmitted wirelessly and displayed on a laptop computer. |
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| 11. |
A certain buffer solution contains equal concentartion of `X^(Theta)` and `HX`. The `K_(b)` for `X^(Theta)` is `10^(-10)`. The `pH` of the buffer is |
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Answer» Correct Answer - 4 `pH=pK_(B)+log([X^(-)])/([HX]),k_(a)=10^(-4)` |
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| 12. |
Difference between the following: (a) Amylose and Amylopectin (b) Peptide linkage and Glycosidic linkage (c) Fibrous proteins and Globular proteins |
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Answer» (a) Amylose typically consists of 200–1000 D-glucopyranoside units connected in α -linkages between C1 of one unit and C4 of the next. Water-insoluble amylopectin has a structure similar to that of amylose [i.e., α(1→4) links] with the exception that in amylopectin the chains are branched. (b) The bond connecting the amino acids in a protein is commonly called a peptide linkage or peptide bond. The peptide linkage is an amide bond formed between −COOH group and −NH2 group. Polysaccharides, also known as glycans, consist of monosaccharides joined together by glycosidic linkages. (c) Fibrous proteins exist as long fibers or strings stabilized by hydrogen and disulphide bonds. They run parallel to each other. These proteins, including myosin (in muscles), collagen (in skin) and keratin (in hair), are usually tough and water insoluble. Globular proteins are spherical in shape, highly folded and tend to be water soluble. The common examples are albumins and insulin. |
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| 13. |
A ultra violet light bulb, emitting 400 nm and infrared bulb emitting 700 nm wavelength radiation each are rated at 130 W. Then the ratio of the number of photons emitted per second by the UV & IR sources :-A. 0.57B. 1.75C. 28D. 0.04 |
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Answer» Correct Answer - A `n_(1)((hc)/(lambda_(1)))=n_(2)((hc)/(lambda_(2)))="power"=130W` `n_(1)*n_(2)` number of photons emitted per second by UV & IR sources `(n_(1))/(n_(2))=(lambda_(1))/(lambda_(2))=(400nm)/(700nm)=(4)/(7) =0.57` |
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| 14. |
Ozone Layer absorbs most of the Ultraviolet Radiation of -1. Moon2. Sun3. Sea4. Earth |
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Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Sun The correct answer is Sun.
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| 15. |
During halogen test, sodium fusion extract is boiled with concentrated HNO3 to (A) remove unreacted sodium (B) decompose cyanide or sulphide of sodium(C) extract halogen from organic compound (D) maintain the pH of extract |
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Answer» Correct option is (B) decompose cyanide or sulphide of sodium Sodium fusion extract is boiled with concentrated HNO3 to remove sodium cyanide and sodium sulphide |
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| 16. |
Which of the following groups contain only biodegradable itemsA) Grass, flowers, and leatherB) Grass, wood and plasticC) Fruit, peels, cake and lime juiceD) Cake, wood and glass |
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Answer» The answer is C) Fruit, peels, cake and lime juice |
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| 17. |
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: A mixture contains benzoic acid and napthalene. The pure benzoic acid can be separated out by the use of benzene. Reason R: Benzoic acid is soluble in hot water.In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A. (C) A is true but R is false.(D) A is false but R is true |
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Answer» Correct option is (D) A is false but R is true. Benzoic acid and Napthalene can be effectively separated by crystallization. Benzoic acid is soluble in hot water whereas Napthalene is insoluble. Hence assertion is incorrect but reason is correct. |
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| 18. |
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason RAssertion A: Polluted water may have a value of BOD of the order of 17 ppm. Reason R: BOD is a measure of oxygen required to oxidise both the biodegradable and nonbiodegradable organic material in water.In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A. (B) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is correct but R is not correct.(D) A is not correct but R is correct. |
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Answer» Correct option is (C) A is correct but R is not correct. Clean water have BOD less than 5 ppm while highly polluted water has BOD greater or equal to 17 ppm. So, assertion is correct. BOD is measure of oxygen required to oxidise only bio-degradable organic matter. So, reason is false. |
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| 19. |
Why is it necessary to remove sulphur from petroleum products ?A. To reduce the emission of sulphur di- oxide in exhaust fumesB. To increase efficiency of automobile enginesC. To use sulphur removed from petroleum for commercial purposesD. To increase the life spari of engine si- lencers |
| Answer» Correct Answer - a | |
| 20. |
Why does `O_3` act as a powerful oxidising agent? |
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Answer» Ozone `O_3` is an endothermic compound. On heating `O_3` readily decomposes to given `O_2` and nascent oxygen. `O_3overset(Delta)toO_2+[O]` |
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| 21. |
The age of retirement of the Judges of the High Court is :(a) 62 years(b) 65 years(c) 58 years(d) 60 years |
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Answer» The age of retirement of the Judges of the High Court is 62 years |
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| 22. |
Who decides the number of Judges in a High Court?(a) State Government(b) President(c) Governor of the State(d) Parliament |
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Answer» President decides the number of Judges in a High Court. |
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| 23. |
The Constitution makes provisions to ensure the independence of judges. Which one of the provisions given below is wrong in this context?(a) Though appointed by the President their removal is by a difficult process(b) Their salaries are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India (or the State)(c) A retired judge cannot be appointed to any office under the Government(d) The conduct of a judge cannot be discussed in Parliament except upon a motion regarding his removal |
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Answer» A retired judge cannot be appointed to any office under the Government |
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| 24. |
The matrix A will not be transformed into an identity matrix if the matrix is |
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Answer» Answer: singular matrix |
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| 25. |
Which parliamentary committee In India is normally chaired by a prominent member of the Opposition? (a) Committee Assurances (b) Estimates Committee (c) Privileges Committee (d) Public Accounts Committee |
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Answer» Public Accounts Committee parliamentary committee In India is normally chaired by a prominent member of the Opposition. |
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| 26. |
The Indian parliamentary system is different from the British parliamentary system in that India has:(a) both a real and a nominal executive (b) a system of collective responsibility (c) bicameral legislature (d) the system of judicial review |
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Answer» (d) the system of judicial review |
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| 27. |
If ‘TEMPERATURE’ is coded as ‘ERUTAREPMET’, then how will you code ‘EDUCATION’ following the same scheme. |
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Answer» Here, the word ‘TEMPERATURE’ has been reversed. Hence, the code for ‘EDUCATION’ will be ‘NOITACUDE’. |
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| 28. |
Which of the following is true? 1. A Bill pending in Rajya Sabha which has not been passed by Lok Sabha lapses on the dissolution of Lok Sabha. 2. If the President has notified about his intention to summon a joint sitting on a Bill, the Bill does not lapse even if the Lok Sabha is dissolved after the notification. (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II |
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Answer» The correct option:(b) II only |
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| 29. |
A dissolution does not affect: (a) a bill that originated in the Rajya Sabha and sent to Lok Sabha (b) a bill that originated in the Lok Sabha but has been sent to Rajya Sabha (c) a bill that originated in the Rajya Sabha but has not yet been sent to the Lok Sabha (d) Any of the above |
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Answer» (c) a bill that originated in the Rajya Sabha but has not yet been sent to the Lok Sabha |
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| 30. |
Which of the following best defines the Parliamentary term 'Crossing the Floor' ?(a) Leaving the opposition to join the party in power or vice-versa by a Parliamentarian (b) An attempt to occupy the seat of some other Parliamentarian (c) Leaving a House by a minister in between in order to attend the other House (d) Walk out by some Parliamentarians in order to boycott the proceedings of the House |
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Answer» (a) Leaving the opposition to join the party in power or vice-versa by a Parliamentarian |
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| 31. |
How many times can the President of India return a Non-money Bill, passed by Parliament? (a) Twice (b) Once (c) Thrice (d) Never |
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Answer» Once times can the President of India return a Non-money Bill, passed by Parliament. |
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| 32. |
At a joint sitting of Parliament a bill has to be passed (a) by a simple majority of the total number of members of both Houses (b) by a two-thirds majority of the total number of members of both Houses (c) by a simple majority of the total number of members of both Houses present and voting (d) by a two-thirds majority of the total number of members of both Houses present and voting |
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Answer» (c) by a simple majority of the total number of members of both Houses present and voting |
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| 33. |
Joint sittings of the two Houses of Parliament are held to:(a) elect the President of India (b) elect the Vice-President of India (c) adopt a Constitution amending Bill (d) consider and pass a Bill on which two Houses disagree |
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Answer» (d) consider and pass a Bill on which two Houses disagree |
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| 34. |
The quorum for Joint Sitting of the Indian Parliament is:(a) One-twelfth of the .total number of members of the House (b) One-sixth of the total number of members of the House (c) One-tenth of the' total number of members of the House (d) Two-third of the total number of members of the House |
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Answer» (c) One-tenth of the' total number of members of the House |
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| 35. |
The number of States under the jurisdiction of a High Court is decided on the basis of:(a) area and population to be served(b) funds at the disposal(c) intention of the government(d) number of judges available |
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Answer» The number of States under the jurisdiction of a High Court is decided on the basis of area and population to be served |
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| 36. |
In the case of a deadlock between the two Houses of the Parliament, the joint sitting is presided over by the:(a) President (b) Vice-President (c) Speaker of Lok Sabha (d) Member of the Lok Sabha specifically elected for the purpose |
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Answer» (c) Speaker of Lok Sabha |
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| 37. |
Which of the following countries established first European Colony in Andaman and Nicobar?1. England2. France3. Denmark4. Spain |
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Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Denmark The Correct Answer is Denmark.
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| 38. |
In the context of assessing democracy which among the following is odd one out.Democracies need to ensure:Α. free and fair electionsΒ. dignity of the individualC. majority ruleD. equal treatment before law |
| Answer» C. majority rule | |
| 39. |
Studies on political and social inequalities in democracy show thatΑ. democracy and development go togetherΒ. inequalities exist in democraciesC. inequalities do not exist under dictatorshipD. dictatorship is better than democracy |
| Answer» Β. inequalities exist in democracies | |
| 40. |
In Which of the following year Andaman and Nicobar declared as Union Territory of India.?1. 19562. 19533. 19654. 1972 |
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Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : 1956 The Correct Answer is 1956.
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| 41. |
In which of the following districts of Madhya Pradesh is the ‘Phadke Studio’ situated?1. Satna2. Gwalior3. Dhar4. Bhopal |
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Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Dhar The correct answer is Dhar.
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| 42. |
What do you mean by norms |
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Answer» something that is usual, typical, or standard. |
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| 43. |
From the following temples of Rajasthan identify the temples which were built in the Gurjar-Pratihar period:(i) Adivarah temple of Ahad(ii) Harshat Mata temple of Abhaneri(iii) Neelkanth temple of Rajorgarh(iv) Harihar temple of Osian1. (i) and (iv)2. (i), (ii) and (iv)3. (ii) and (iv)4. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) |
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Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) The correct answer is (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).
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| 44. |
What is indicated by price, which a buyer is ready to exchange for purchase of certain goods/ services? A) Satisfaction B) Money value C) Purchasing power D) Marketer’s assessment |
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Answer» B) Money Value Money Value is indicated by price, which a buyer is ready to exchange for purchase of certain goods/ services. |
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| 45. |
Match the columns : `{:("(i) It facilitates the purchase of goods and services without making immediate payment. ","(a) Trade Credit"),("(ii) It refers to that part of profits which is kept and reserve for use in the future.","(b) Preference Shares "),("(iii) This source of finance has characteristics of both equity shares and debentures.","(c ) Retained Earnings "):}` |
| Answer» (i)-(a),(ii)-(c ), (iii)-(b) | |
| 46. |
____ are also known as incoming tour operators. a) Inbound Tour Operatorsb) Outbound Tour Operators c) Domestic Tour Operators d) Ground Operators |
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Answer» Inbound Tour Operators are also known as incoming tour operators. |
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| 47. |
CRS stands for ______. a) Computerized Revised system b) Computerized Renewable system c) Computerized Reservation system d) Computerized Research system |
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Answer» CRS stands for Computerized Reservation system. |
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| 48. |
C Ltd. is planning to modernise its plant with latest technology. The company is not having sufficient money. The finance manager plans to arrange money for 3 year since after that the company is expecting a good return on investment. The finance manager does not want to spend on floatation costs on issue of shares or debentures. Identify the suitable source of finance for the company. |
| Answer» Correct Answer - Public Deposits | |
| 49. |
____ is a company that buys certain services from different companies (like hotels, restaurants, cafes, beauty salons) and forms a single tourist product out of them using its own pricing system. a) tour operator b) retailer c) Supplier d) manufactures |
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Answer» Correct option: a) tour operator |
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| 50. |
Mrs. Sheela is running a Ladies Beauty Parlour in Calicut City. She is the owner, manager and labourer of her business. (a) What form of organisation Mrs. Sheela owns. (b) State its merits and demerits. |
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Answer» (a) Sole Proprietorship (b) Sole proprietorship: Sole proprietorship refers to a form of business organization which is owned, managed and controlled by an individual who is the recipient of all profits and bearer of all risks. It is the most common form of business organization. Features 1. The sole trader is the single owner and manager of the business. 2. The formation of a sole proprietorship is very easy. There are no legal formalities to form and close a sole proprietorship. 3. The liability of a sole trader is unlimited, i.e. in case of loss, his personal properties can be used to pay the business liabilities. 4. The entire profit of the sole trading business goes to the sole proprietor. If there is any loss it is also to be borne by the sole proprietor alone. 5. The sole trader has full control over the affairs of the business. So he can take quick decisions. 6. A sole trading concern has no legal existence separate from its owner. 7. The death, insolvency etc. of a sole trader causes discontinuity of business. Merits 1. Easy formation:- The formation of a sole proprietorship is very easy. There are no legal formalities to form and close a sole proprietorship. 2. Quick Decision: The sole trader has full control over the affairs of the business. So he can take quick decisions and prompt actions in all business matters. 3. Motivation: The entire profit of the sole trading business goes to the sole proprietor. It motivates him to work hard. 4. Secrecy: A sole trader can keep all the information related to business operations and he is not bound to publish the firm’s accounts. 5. Close Personal Relation : The sole proprietor can maintain good personal contact with the customers and employees and thus, business runs smoothly. Limitations 1. Limited capital: A sole trader can start business only on a small scale because of limited capital. 2. Lack of Continuity: Death, insolvency or illness of a proprietor affects the business and can lead to its closure. 3. Limited managerial ability: A sole proprietor may not be an expert in every aspect of management. 4. Unlimited liability: The liability of a sole trader is unlimited, i.e. in case of loss, his personal properties can be used to pay off the business liabilities. 5. Suitability: Sole proprietorship is suitable in the following cases.
Eg. tailoring, beauty parlour etc.
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