Explore topic-wise InterviewSolutions in Current Affairs.

This section includes 7 InterviewSolutions, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Current Affairs knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

The pressure along the melting curve is(a) Sublimation pressure(b) Saturation pressure(c) Condensation pressure(d) None of the mentioned

Answer» The correct choice is (a) Sublimation pressure

To explain: The pressure along the melting curve is Sublimation pressure.
2.

“It checks if the value of the left operand is less than or equal to the value of the right operand, if yes then the condition becomes true”. Identify the operator.

Answer»

Answer is <=

3.

What is used as a light source in ear oximeter?(a) Mercury-vapor lamp(b) Sodium-vapor lamp(c) Tungsten-iodine lamp(d) Sulfur lamp

Answer» Right choice is (c) Tungsten-iodine lamp

Easy explanation: The light source is a tungsten-iodine lamp that has a high output in the spectrum of interest. A lens system collimates the light beam and directs it through thin-film interference filters that provide wavelength selection.
4.

How many steps are there in QRS detection?(a) Three steps(b) Two steps(c) Four steps(d) One step

Answer» The correct answer is (b) Two steps

Easiest explanation: QRS detection is now almost universally performed digitally in a two-step process. The ECG is first preprocessed to enhance the QRS complex while suppressing noise, artifact and non-QRS portions of the ECG. The output of the preprocessor stage is subjected to a decision rule that confirms the detection of QRS if the processor output exceeds a threshold.
5.

_________ is based on analyzing the shape of the QRS complexes and separating beats into groups or clusters.(a) Timing classification(b) Morphology characterization(c) Beat labeling(d) Noise detection

Answer» Correct answer is (b) Morphology characterization

To explain I would say: Morphology characterization is based on analyzing the shape of the QRS complexes and separating beats into groups or clusters of similar morphology. Most algorithms for real time arrhythmia analysis maintain no more than 10-20 clusters at a time, order to limit the amount of computation needed to assign a QRS complex to a cluster.
6.

A point source emits sound equally in all directions in a non-absorbing medium. Two point `P` and `Q` are at distance of `2 m` and `3 m` respectively from the source. The ratio of the intensities of the wave at `P` and `Q` is :A. `9:4`B. `2:3`C. `3:2`D. `4:9`

Answer» Correct Answer - a
The average power per unit area that is incident perpendicular to the direction of propagation is called intensity, i.e,.
`I=(P)/(4pir^(2))`
or `I prop (1)/(r^(2))implies (I_(1))/(I_(2))=((r_(2))/(r_(1)))^(2)`
Hence, `r_(1)= 2m, r_(2)=3m`
`:. (I_(1))/(I_(2))=((3)/(2))^(2)= (9)/(4)`
7.

According to the international 10/20 system to measure EEG, odd number denotes which side of the brain?(a) left(b) right(c) top(d) front

Answer» Right choice is (a) left

The best I can explain: The position of each electrode is specified using the International 10/20 system. Each electrode site is labeled with a letter and a number. Odd number denotes the left side of the head.
8.

Which of the following is a preferred electrode for measuring EMG?(a) surface electrodes(b) needle electrodes(c) pregelled electrodes(d) scalp electrodes

Answer» The correct answer is (b) needle electrodes

The best explanation: Electrodes for EMG work are usually of the needle type. Needle electrodes are used in clinical EMG, neurography and other electrophysiological measurements of the muscle tissues underneath the skin. Surface electrodes are preferred to measure ECG. Scalp electrodes for EEG.
9.

Which rhythm is the principal component of the EEG that indicates the alertness of the brain?(a) theta rhythm(b) gamma rhythm(c) beta rhythm(d) alpha rhythm

Answer» Correct option is (d) alpha rhythm

Explanation: The alpha rhythm is the principal component of the EEG and is an indicator of the state of alertness of the brain. It serves as an indicator of the depth of anesthesia in the operating room. The frequency of the EEG seems to be affected by the mental activity of a person.
10.

Which of the following is a wireless ECG acquiring system?(a) pregelled disposable electrodes(b) limb electrodes(c) pasteless electrodes(d) smart pad

Answer» The correct option is (d) smart pad

The explanation: Smart pad is a system that displays patients electrocardiogram signals without adhesive pads, wires or active intervention from a clinician. The system automatically selects three electrodes from an array of Cu/Ni fabric based electrodes patterned on a thin pad on which the patient lies. The selected electrodes are used to provide a differential 3 lead measurement of the patient’s ECG, which is then transmitted wirelessly and displayed on a laptop computer.
11.

A certain buffer solution contains equal concentartion of `X^(Theta)` and `HX`. The `K_(b)` for `X^(Theta)` is `10^(-10)`. The `pH` of the buffer is

Answer» Correct Answer - 4
`pH=pK_(B)+log([X^(-)])/([HX]),k_(a)=10^(-4)`
12.

Difference between the following: (a) Amylose and Amylopectin (b) Peptide linkage and Glycosidic linkage (c) Fibrous proteins and Globular proteins

Answer»

(a) Amylose typically consists of 200–1000 D-glucopyranoside units connected in α -linkages between C1 of one unit and C4 of the next. Water-insoluble amylopectin has a structure similar to that of amylose [i.e., α(1→4) links] with the exception that in amylopectin the chains are branched. 

(b) The bond connecting the amino acids in a protein is commonly called a peptide linkage or peptide bond. The peptide linkage is an amide bond formed between −COOH group and −NH2 group.

Polysaccharides, also known as glycans, consist of monosaccharides joined together by glycosidic linkages. (c) Fibrous proteins exist as long fibers or strings stabilized by hydrogen and disulphide bonds. They run parallel to each other. These proteins, including myosin (in muscles), collagen (in skin) and keratin (in hair), are usually tough and water insoluble. Globular proteins are spherical in shape, highly folded and tend to be water soluble. The common examples are albumins and insulin.

13.

A ultra violet light bulb, emitting 400 nm and infrared bulb emitting 700 nm wavelength radiation each are rated at 130 W. Then the ratio of the number of photons emitted per second by the UV & IR sources :-A. 0.57B. 1.75C. 28D. 0.04

Answer» Correct Answer - A
`n_(1)((hc)/(lambda_(1)))=n_(2)((hc)/(lambda_(2)))="power"=130W`
`n_(1)*n_(2)` number of photons emitted per second by UV & IR sources
`(n_(1))/(n_(2))=(lambda_(1))/(lambda_(2))=(400nm)/(700nm)=(4)/(7) =0.57`
14.

Ozone Layer absorbs most of the Ultraviolet Radiation of -1. Moon2. Sun3. Sea4. Earth

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Sun

The correct answer is Sun.

 

  • The ozone layer is found in the stratosphere.
  • Ozone Layer absorbs most of the Ultraviolet Radiation of Sun.
  • Compared to other parts of the atmosphere ozone layer contains high concentrations of ozone (O3).
  • The ozone layer was discovered by Charles Fabry and Henri Buisson in 1913.
  • The ozone layer is mainly found in the lower portion of the stratosphere.
  • The ozone layer acts as a shield absorbing ultraviolet radiation from the sun.

  • Ozone depletion refers to the phenomenon of reductions in the amount of ozone in the stratosphere.
  • The ozone layer can be depleted by high levels of chlorine and bromine compounds in the stratosphere.
  • Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC) used as cooling substances in air conditioners and refrigerators is the main cause of ozone depletion.
  • The Montreal Protocol signed in 1987 was to control the emission of ozone-depleting substances.
15.

During halogen test, sodium fusion extract is boiled with concentrated HNO3 to (A) remove unreacted sodium (B) decompose cyanide or sulphide of sodium(C) extract halogen from organic compound (D) maintain the pH of extract

Answer»

Correct option is (B) decompose cyanide or sulphide of sodium

Sodium fusion extract is boiled with concentrated HNO3 to remove sodium cyanide and sodium sulphide

16.

Which of the following groups contain only biodegradable itemsA) Grass, flowers, and leatherB) Grass, wood and plasticC) Fruit, peels, cake and lime juiceD) Cake, wood and glass

Answer»

The answer is C) Fruit, peels, cake and lime juice

17.

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: A mixture contains benzoic acid and napthalene. The pure benzoic acid can be separated out by the use of benzene. Reason R: Benzoic acid is soluble in hot water.In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A. (C) A is true but R is false.(D) A is false but R is true

Answer»

Correct option is (D) A is false but R is true.

Benzoic acid and Napthalene can be effectively separated by crystallization. Benzoic acid is soluble in hot water whereas Napthalene is insoluble.

Hence assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.

18.

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason RAssertion A: Polluted water may have a value of BOD of the order of 17 ppm. Reason R: BOD is a measure of oxygen required to oxidise both the biodegradable and nonbiodegradable organic material in water.In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A. (B) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.(C) A is correct but R is not correct.(D) A is not correct but R is correct.

Answer»

Correct option is (C) A is correct but R is not correct.

Clean water have BOD less than 5 ppm while highly polluted water has BOD greater or equal to 17 ppm. So, assertion is correct. 

BOD is measure of oxygen required to oxidise only bio-degradable organic matter. So, reason is false.

19.

Why is it necessary to remove sulphur from petroleum products ?A. To reduce the emission of sulphur di- oxide in exhaust fumesB. To increase efficiency of automobile enginesC. To use sulphur removed from petroleum for commercial purposesD. To increase the life spari of engine si- lencers

Answer» Correct Answer - a
20.

Why does `O_3` act as a powerful oxidising agent?

Answer» Ozone `O_3` is an endothermic compound. On heating `O_3` readily decomposes to given `O_2` and nascent oxygen.
`O_3overset(Delta)toO_2+[O]`
21.

The age of retirement of the Judges of the High Court is :(a) 62 years(b) 65 years(c) 58 years(d) 60 years

Answer»

The age of retirement of the Judges of the High Court is  62 years

22.

 Who decides the number of Judges in a High Court?(a) State Government(b) President(c) Governor of the State(d) Parliament

Answer»

President decides the number of Judges in a High Court.

23.

The Constitution makes provisions to ensure the  independence of judges. Which one of the provisions given below is wrong in this context?(a) Though appointed by the President their removal is by a difficult process(b) Their salaries are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India (or the State)(c) A retired judge cannot be appointed to any office under the Government(d) The conduct of a judge cannot be discussed in Parliament except upon a motion regarding his removal

Answer»

A retired judge cannot be appointed to any office under the Government

24.

The matrix A will not be transformed into an identity matrix if the matrix is

Answer»

Answer:  singular matrix

25.

Which parliamentary committee In India is normally chaired by a prominent member of the Opposition? (a) Committee Assurances (b) Estimates Committee (c) Privileges Committee (d) Public Accounts Committee

Answer»

Public Accounts Committee parliamentary committee In India is normally chaired by a prominent member of the Opposition.

26.

The Indian parliamentary system is different from the British parliamentary system in that India has:(a) both a real and a nominal executive (b) a system of collective responsibility (c) bicameral legislature (d) the system of judicial review

Answer»

(d) the system of judicial review 

27.

If ‘TEMPERATURE’ is coded as ‘ERUTAREPMET’, then how will you code ‘EDUCATION’ following the same scheme.

Answer»

Here, the word ‘TEMPERATURE’ has been reversed. Hence, the code for ‘EDUCATION’ will be ‘NOITACUDE’.

28.

Which of the following is true? 1. A Bill pending in Rajya Sabha which has not been passed by Lok Sabha lapses on the dissolution of Lok Sabha. 2. If the President has notified about his intention to summon a joint sitting on a Bill, the Bill does not lapse even if the Lok Sabha is dissolved after the notification. (a) I only (b) II only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II 

Answer»

The correct option:(b) II only

29.

A dissolution does not affect: (a) a bill that originated in the Rajya Sabha and sent to Lok Sabha (b) a bill that originated in the Lok Sabha but has been sent to Rajya Sabha (c) a bill that originated in the Rajya Sabha but has not yet been sent to the Lok Sabha (d) Any of the above

Answer»

(c) a bill that originated in the Rajya Sabha but has not yet been sent to the Lok Sabha

30.

Which of the following best defines the Parliamentary term 'Crossing the Floor' ?(a) Leaving the opposition to join the party in power or vice-versa by a Parliamentarian (b) An attempt to occupy the seat of some other Parliamentarian (c) Leaving a House by a minister in between in order to attend the other House (d) Walk out by some Parliamentarians in order to boycott the proceedings of the House

Answer»

(a) Leaving the opposition to join the party in power or vice-versa by a Parliamentarian

31.

How many times can the President of India return a Non-money Bill, passed by Parliament? (a) Twice (b) Once (c) Thrice (d) Never

Answer»

Once times can the President of India return a Non-money Bill, passed by Parliament.

32.

At a joint sitting of Parliament a bill has to be passed (a) by a simple majority of the total number of members of both Houses (b) by a two-thirds majority of the total number of members of both Houses (c) by a simple majority of the total number of members of both Houses present and voting (d) by a two-thirds majority of the total number of members of both Houses present and voting

Answer»

(c) by a simple majority of the total number of members of both Houses present and voting

33.

Joint sittings of the two Houses of Parliament are held to:(a) elect the President of India (b) elect the Vice-President of India (c) adopt a Constitution amending Bill (d) consider and pass a Bill on which two Houses disagree

Answer»

(d) consider and pass a Bill on which two Houses disagree

34.

The quorum for Joint Sitting of the Indian Parliament is:(a) One-twelfth of the .total number of members of the House (b) One-sixth of the total number of members of the House (c) One-tenth of the' total number of members of the House (d) Two-third of the total number of members of the House

Answer»

(c) One-tenth of the' total number of members of the House

35.

The number of States under the jurisdiction of a High Court is decided on the basis of:(a) area and population to be served(b) funds at the disposal(c) intention of the government(d) number of judges available

Answer»

The number of States under the jurisdiction of a High Court is decided on the basis of area and population to be served

36.

In the case of a deadlock between the two Houses of the Parliament, the joint sitting is presided over by the:(a) President (b) Vice-President (c) Speaker of Lok Sabha (d) Member of the Lok Sabha specifically elected for the purpose 

Answer»

(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha

37.

Which of the following countries established first European Colony in Andaman and Nicobar?1. England2. France3. Denmark4. Spain

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Denmark

The Correct Answer is Denmark.

  • When the Danish settlers of the Danish East India Company arrived in the Nicobar Islands on 12 December 1755, the history of organized European colonization began.
  • The Nicobar Islands were made a Danish colony on 1 January 1756, first called New Denmark.
  • The name Nicobar probably derives from the Tamil word nakkavaram (“land of the naked”).
  • The British first surveyed the Andaman Islands in 1789 in search of a place to establish a penal colony for offenders from British India. Such a colony was established in 1790 but was abandoned just a few years later.
  • It is first called New Denmark, and later Frederick's Islands (December 1756).
  • They were administered from Tranquebar during 1754–1756 (in continental Danish India). The islands were repeatedly abandoned due to malaria outbreaks between 14 April and 17 April.
38.

In the context of assessing democracy which among the following is odd one out.Democracies need to ensure:Α. free and fair electionsΒ. dignity of the individualC. majority ruleD. equal treatment before law

Answer» C. majority rule
39.

Studies on political and social inequalities in democracy show thatΑ. democracy and development go togetherΒ. inequalities exist in democraciesC. inequalities do not exist under dictatorshipD. dictatorship is better than democracy

Answer» Β. inequalities exist in democracies
40.

In Which of the following year Andaman and Nicobar declared as Union Territory of India.?1. 19562. 19533. 19654. 1972

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : 1956

The Correct Answer is 1956.

  • Andaman and Nicobar declared as the Union Territory of India in 1956.
  • Union Territory of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, India, consisting of two groups of islands on the southeastern edge of the Bay of Bengal.
  • The peaks of the underwater mountains, the Andaman Islands, and their southern neighbors, the Nicobar Islands, form an arc that extends southward between Myanmar (Burma) and the island of Sumatra, Indonesia, for some 1,000 km.
  • The border between the Bay of Bengal to the west and the Andaman Sea to the east forms the arc.
  • The Territorial Capital is Port Blair (on South Andaman Island).
  • Located on the ancient trading route between India and Myanmar, the Andamans were visited by the English East India Company's navy in 1789 and were administratively linked to the Nicobar Islands by the British in 1872.
  • The two sets of islands became the Republic of India's Union Territory in 1956.
  • The territory has been known for its indigenous cultures for over a century, which has ardently resisted widespread contact with ethnic outsiders. 
  • The islands gained global attention in 2004 when they were seriously damaged by a massive tsunami caused by an earthquake in the Indian Ocean near Indonesia. 
41.

In which of the following districts of Madhya Pradesh is the ‘Phadke Studio’ situated?1. Satna2. Gwalior3. Dhar4. Bhopal

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Dhar

The correct answer is Dhar.

  • The 'Phadake studio' was made in Dhar district of Madhya Pradesh.
  • The Maharaja of Dhar was a patron of art and would often invite several artists to his kingdom.
  • Phadke was one of those.
  • On his request, Phadke started an art studio in Dhar.
  • It is today known as Phadke Art Studio.
  • Raghunath Krishna Phadkewas a famous Indian sculptor from the state of Maharashtra.
  • He received the Padma Shri Award in 1961.
42.

What do you mean by norms

Answer»

something that is usual, typical, or standard.

43.

From the following temples of Rajasthan identify the temples which were built in the Gurjar-Pratihar period:(i) Adivarah temple of Ahad(ii) Harshat Mata temple of Abhaneri(iii) Neelkanth temple of Rajorgarh(iv) Harihar temple of Osian1. (i) and (iv)2. (i), (ii) and (iv)3. (ii) and (iv)4. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

The correct answer is (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).

  • Adivarah temple of Ahad is located in the Udaipur district, Rajasthan.
    • It was built by Adivarah Chakravarti Gurjar Emperor Mihir Bhoj in 934 AD.
    • This temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva. 
  • Harshat Mata Temple of Abhaneri was built in the 8th century.
    • This temple is located in the Dausa district.
  • Harihar temple of Osian was built in the 8th century.
    • It is located in the Jodhpur district.
    • This temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva and Vishnu.  
  • Neelkanth Temple of Rajorgarh was built between the 6th and 9th centuries.
    • It was built by Maharajadhiraja Mathanadeva, a local Pratihara feudatory.
    • This temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva.

  • The Gurjar-Pratihara dynasty ruled northern India from the 8th century to the 11th century.
  • Nagabhata II was the most powerful ruler of the Gurjara-Pratiharas dynasty.
44.

What is indicated by price, which a buyer is ready to exchange for purchase of certain goods/ services? A) Satisfaction B) Money value C) Purchasing power D) Marketer’s assessment

Answer»

B) Money Value

Money Value is indicated by price, which a buyer is ready to exchange for purchase of certain goods/ services.

45.

Match the columns : `{:("(i) It facilitates the purchase of goods and services without making immediate payment. ","(a) Trade Credit"),("(ii) It refers to that part of profits which is kept and reserve for use in the future.","(b) Preference Shares "),("(iii) This source of finance has characteristics of both equity shares and debentures.","(c ) Retained Earnings "):}`

Answer» (i)-(a),(ii)-(c ), (iii)-(b)
46.

____ are also known as incoming tour operators. a) Inbound Tour Operatorsb) Outbound Tour Operators c) Domestic Tour Operators d) Ground Operators

Answer»

Inbound Tour Operators are also known as incoming tour operators.

47.

CRS stands for ______. a) Computerized Revised system b) Computerized Renewable system c) Computerized Reservation system d) Computerized Research system

Answer»

CRS stands for Computerized Reservation system.

48.

C Ltd. is planning to modernise its plant with latest technology. The company is not having sufficient money. The finance manager plans to arrange money for 3 year since after that the company is expecting a good return on investment. The finance manager does not want to spend on floatation costs on issue of shares or debentures. Identify the suitable source of finance for the company.

Answer» Correct Answer - Public Deposits
49.

____ is a company that buys certain services from different companies (like hotels, restaurants, cafes, beauty salons) and forms a single tourist product out of them using its own pricing system. a) tour operator b) retailer c) Supplier d) manufactures

Answer»

Correct option: a) tour operator

50.

Mrs. Sheela is running a Ladies Beauty Parlour in Calicut City. She is the owner, manager and labourer of her business. (a) What form of organisation Mrs. Sheela owns. (b) State its merits and demerits.

Answer»

(a) Sole Proprietorship 

(b) Sole proprietorship: 

Sole proprietorship refers to a form of business organization which is owned, managed and controlled by an individual who is the recipient of all profits and bearer of all risks. It is the most common form of business organization.

Features 

1. The sole trader is the single owner and manager of the business. 

2. The formation of a sole proprietorship is very easy. There are no legal formalities to form and close a sole proprietorship. 

3. The liability of a sole trader is unlimited, i.e. in case of loss, his personal properties can be used to pay the business liabilities. 

4. The entire profit of the sole trading business goes to the sole proprietor. If there is any loss it is also to be borne by the sole proprietor alone. 

5. The sole trader has full control over the affairs of the business. So he can take quick decisions.

6. A sole trading concern has no legal existence separate from its owner. 

7. The death, insolvency etc. of a sole trader causes discontinuity of business.

Merits 

1. Easy formation:- 

The formation of a sole proprietorship is very easy. There are no legal formalities to form and close a sole proprietorship.

2. Quick Decision: 

The sole trader has full control over the affairs of the business. So he can take quick decisions and prompt actions in all business matters.

3. Motivation: 

The entire profit of the sole trading business goes to the sole proprietor. It motivates him to work hard.

4. Secrecy: 

A sole trader can keep all the information related to business operations and he is not bound to publish the firm’s accounts.

5. Close Personal Relation : 

The sole proprietor can maintain good personal contact with the customers and employees and thus, business runs smoothly.

Limitations 

1. Limited capital: 

A sole trader can start business only on a small scale because of limited capital.

2. Lack of Continuity: 

Death, insolvency or illness of a proprietor affects the business and can lead to its closure.

3. Limited managerial ability: 

A sole proprietor may not be an expert in every aspect of management.

4. Unlimited liability:

The liability of a sole trader is unlimited, i.e. in case of loss, his personal properties can be used to pay off the business liabilities.

5. Suitability: 

Sole proprietorship is suitable in the following cases. 

  • Where the market is limited, localized and customers demand personalized services. 

Eg. tailoring, beauty parlour etc. 

  • Where goods are unstandardised like artistic jewellery. 
  • Where lower capital, limited risk & limited managerial skills are required as in case of retail store.