100525 + Interview Questions in GENERAL QA IN GENERAL AWARENESS Page 1 InterviewSolution

1.	What is the difference between multimolecular and macromolecular collids ? Give one example of each . How are associated colloids different from these two types of colloids ?
Answer» `a.` Multimolecular colloids are formed by the aggregation of small molecules `(` diameter `lt1mm)`, while macromolecular colloids are forced by macromolecular and consist of single molecules. `b`. Multimolecular colloids are generally lyophobic whereas macromolecular colloids are generally lyophilic. Difference between associated colloids and multimolecular and macromolecular colloids. Multimolecular colloids are formed by the aggregation macromolecular colloids are due to the large size of the molecules themselves `(e.g., ` starch `)` so large that their size lies in the colloidal range. However, associated colloids are formed by electrolytes so that they dissociate into ions and these ions associate together to form ionic micelles whose size lies in the colloidal range, `e.g.,` soaps. This happens above a particular concentration `(` called critical micellization concentration `)` and above a particular temperature, called Kraft temperature.

Discussion

2.	Gastrointestinal irritation, cardiovascular effects, including tachycardia,arrhythmias, and orthostatic hypotension, mental disturbances, and withdrawalare possible adverse effects of: A. Amantadine B. Benztropine C. Levodopa D. selegiline
Answer» Answer: C. Levodopa

Discussion

3.	Match the column I and IIColumn-IColumn-II(a)Parasitism(i)++(b)Commensalism(ii)+ –(c)Amensalism(iii)0 + (d)Mutualism(iv)0 –(1) (a) - iii, (b) - ii, (c) - iv, (d) - i (2) (a) - i, (b) - ii, (c) - iii, (d) - iv (3) (a) - ii, (b) - iii, (c) - i, (d) - iv (4) (a) - ii, (b) - iii, (c) - iv, (d) - i
Answer» (4) (a) - ii, (b) - iii, (c) - iv, (d) - i

Discussion

4.	Assertion: In commensalism, one organism is benefitted and other is unaffected Reason: Cattle egret bird and cattle is an example of commensalism (1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion. (2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion. (3) If assertion is true but reason is false. (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
Answer» (2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

Discussion

5.	In charge of Calcutta Mint between 1832 to 1838, he studied and deciphered Ashokan rocks and pillars. His essays on antiquities are considered as classics. Hint: Varanasi. Who are we referring to?
Answer» James Prinsep

Discussion

6.	Nature of climax community depends upon(A) Climate (B) Water (C) Soil fertility (D) Temperature
Answer» Correct option is: (A) Climate

Discussion

7.	How do biofertilisers enrich the fertility of the soil?
Answer» Bio-fertilizers are living organisms which help in increasing the fertility of soil. It involves the selection of beneficial micro-organisms that help in improving plant growth through the supply of plant nutrients. These are introduced to seeds, roots, or soil to mobilize the availability of nutrients by their biological activity. Thus, they are extremely beneficial in enriching the soil with organic nutrients. Many species of bacteria and cyanobacteria have the ability to fix free atmospheric nitrogen. Rhizobium is a symbiotic bacteria found in the root nodules of leguminous plants. Azospirillium and Azotobocter are free living nitrogen-fixing bacteria, whereas Anabena, Nostoc, and Oscillitoria are examples of nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria. Biofertilizers are cost effective and eco-friendly.

Discussion

8.	Read carefully the passage and select the correct answer out of given four options:Biofertilizers are organisms that enrich nutrient quality of the soil. The important sources of biofertilizers are bacteria, fungi and cyanobacteria. The symbiotic association of Rhizobium with the root nodules of leguminous plants is the common example. These bacteria convert atmospheric nitrogen into nitrogenous compound and fix in the soil.The organisms which enrich the nutrient quality of the soil are called(a) Microbes(b) Biofertilizers(c) Yeast(d) Biopesticides
Answer» Answer (b) Biofertilizers

Discussion

9.	Electrophoresis is an essential procedure that needs to be employed in genetic fingerprinting why?
Answer» Required to separate DNA fragments obtained restriction enzyme digestion.

Discussion

10.	Assertion: Angiosperms form endosperm after fertilization and is diploid. Reason: In gymnosperms, endosperm is formed before fertilization and is triploid. a. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion. b. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion. c. Assertion is true but reason is false. d. Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer» d. Both assertion and reason are false.

Discussion

11.	What are biofertilisers?
Answer» Biofertilizers are organisms that enrich the nutrient quality of soil.

Discussion

12.	Assertion: Meiosis and sexual fusion are essential in sexual reproduction. Reason: Meiosis and sexual fusion help in producing indentical child. a. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion. b. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion. c. Assertion is true but reason is false. d. Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer» c. Assertion is true but reason is false.

Discussion

13.	State the cause of adenosine deaminase enzyme deficiency.
Answer» It is caused due to deletion of the gene coding for the enzyme, adenosine deaminase. The first clinical gene therapy for adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency.

Discussion

14.	Restriction enzymes are considered as a type of endonucleases. Why?
Answer» Restriction endonucleases make cuts at specific positions within the DNA.

Discussion

15.	Why is pyramid of energy always upright?
Answer» When energy flows from a particular tropic level to the next trophic level, some energy is always lost as heat at each step.

Discussion

16.	State Gause’s competitive exclusion principle.
Answer» Two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co – exist indefinitely and the competitively inferior one will be eventually eliminated.

Discussion

17.	List the attributes that populations but not individuals possess
Answer» A population can be defined as a group of individuals of the same species residing in a particular geographical area at a particular time and functioning as a unit. For example, all human beings living at a particular place at a particular time constitute the population of humans. The main attributes or characteristics of a population residing in a given area are: Birth rate (Natality): It is the ratio of live births in an area to the population of an area. It is expressed as the number of individuals added to the population with respect to the members of the population. Death rate (Mortality): It is the ratio of deaths in an area to the population of an area. It is expressed as the loss of individuals with respect to the members of the population. Sex ratio: It is the number of males or females per thousand individuals. Age Distribution: It is the percentage of individuals of different ages in a given population. At any given time, the population is composed of individuals that are present in various age groups. The age distribution pattern is commonly represented through age pyramids. Population density: It is defined as the number of individuals of a population present per unit area at a given time.

17.

List the attributes that populations but not individuals possess

Answer»

A population can be defined as a group of individuals of the same species residing in a particular geographical area at a particular time and functioning as a unit. For example, all human beings living at a particular place at a particular time constitute the population of humans.
The main attributes or characteristics of a population residing in a given area are:

Birth rate (Natality): It is the ratio of live births in an area to the population of an area. It is expressed as the number of individuals added to the population with respect to the members of the population.
Death rate (Mortality): It is the ratio of deaths in an area to the population of an area. It is expressed as the loss of individuals with respect to the members of the population.
Sex ratio: It is the number of males or females per thousand individuals.
Age Distribution: It is the percentage of individuals of different ages in a given population. At any given time, the population is composed of individuals that are present in various age groups. The age distribution pattern is commonly represented through age pyramids.
Population density: It is defined as the number of individuals of a population present per unit area at a given time.

Discussion

18.	List the diﬀerent attributes that a population has and not an individual organism
Answer» A population is defined as a group of individuals belonging to same species living together in an area and functioning as a unit. The different attributes of a population are given below: 1) Birth rate- It is defined as the number of live births per thousand population of individuals per year. 2) Death rate- It is defined as number of deaths per thousand population of individuals per year. 3) Sex ratio- It is defined as number of males or females per thousand individuals. 4) Age distribution- It refers to the number of individuals of different ages in a given population. 5) Population density- It is the number of individuals present per unit area at a given time.

Discussion

19.	What changes are observed in the uterus subsequent to implantation of young embryo?
Answer» The uterine wall thickens that is richly supplied with blood. A special tissue called placenta develops which connects embryo to the uterine wall that provides nutrients and oxygen to it.

Discussion

20.	State the changes that take place in the uterus when :(i) Implantation of embryo has occurred(ii) Female gamete/egg is not fertilised
Answer» (i) When implantation has occurred in uterus of mother, the inner lining of the uterus thickens and is richly supplied with the blood vessels to provide nourishment to the growing embryo. (ii) If the egg is not fertilised, it lives for one day. Since, the thickened uterus lining is no more required, it slowly breaks down and comes out of the vagina as blood and mucous known as menstruation which lasts for about two to eight days.

Discussion

21.	What is tree girdling? What happens to a plant when that girdle is removed from the stem (below the branches)?
Answer» Malpighi’s girdling, or tree girdling, is the removal from a stem of a complete external girdle containing the phloem (that is more external) but preserving the xylem (that is more internal). When a girdle like that is removed below the branches the plant dies because organic food (sugar) is disallowed to pass to the region below the girdle and thus roots die from the lack of nutrients. Since roots die the plant does not get water and mineral salts and dies too.

21.

What is tree girdling? What happens to a plant when that girdle is removed from the stem (below the branches)?

Answer»

Malpighi’s girdling, or tree girdling, is the removal from a stem of a complete external girdle containing the phloem (that is more external) but preserving the xylem (that is more internal).

When a girdle like that is removed below the branches the plant dies because organic food (sugar) is disallowed to pass to the region below the girdle and thus roots die from the lack of nutrients. Since roots die the plant does not get water and mineral salts and dies too.

Discussion

22.	For an isolated system, `DeltaU=0`. What will be the value of `DeltaS`?
Answer» Consider the example of two gases contained separately in two bulbs connected by a stop-cock and isolated from the surroundings as an example of an isolated system. On opening the stop-cock, the two gases mix up, i.e., the system becomes more disordered. This implies that `DeltaS gt 0`.

Discussion

23.	Now, look at the list you have made. What facts do the readers expect in a profile? Date of birth …………………….. ………… ………………………………… etc
Answer» Date of birth Parents and schooling Higher Education Turning Points in life Marriage Rare activities Achievements Things that make a person stand out The message he/she gives

Discussion

24.	Amongst the following the total number of the compounds i.e. oxide soluble in aqueous NaOH is : `Ag_2O, Al_2O_3,ZnO, SnO,PbO,CuO,BeO,BaO,CaO`
Answer» Correct Answer - 5 `BeO(s)+2NaOH(aq)toNa_2BeO_2(aq)+H_2O` `Al_2O_3(s)+2NaOH(aq)to2NaAlO_2(aq)+H_2O` `ZnO(s)+2NaOH(aq)toNa_2ZnO_2(aq)+H_2O` `SnO(s)+2NaOH(aq)to Na_2SnO_2(aq)+H_2O` `PbO(s)+2NaOH(aq)toNa_2PbO_2(aq)+H_2O`

Discussion

25.	When 900 ml of water is added in 100 ml of 0.01N HCl solution then pH of resultant solution will be:
Answer» Given that Volume of HCl = 100 ml = 0.1 L Normality of HCl = 0.1 N Now we can find Gram-equivalent of HCl = Normality × Volume = 0.1 × 0.1 = 0.01 So, Volume of solution = Volume of H₂O + Volume of HCl = 900 + 100 = 1000 mL = 100 mL= 1 L Normality of HCl in resulting solution = 0.01/1 = 0.01 N pH = −log[H⁺] = −log(0.01) = 2

25.

When 900 ml of water is added in 100 ml of 0.01N HCl solution then pH of resultant solution will be:

Answer»

Given that

Volume of HCl = 100 ml = 0.1 L

Normality of HCl = 0.1 N

Now we can find

Gram-equivalent of HCl = Normality × Volume

= 0.1 × 0.1 = 0.01

So,

Volume of solution = Volume of H₂O + Volume of HCl

= 900 + 100 = 1000 mL

= 100 mL= 1 L

Normality of HCl in resulting solution = 0.01/1 = 0.01 N

pH = −log[H⁺]

= −log(0.01)

= 2

Discussion

26.	1.5 ml of the gaseous hydrocarbon required 375 ml of air (containing 20% `O_(2)` by volume) for complete combustion. The resultant gaseous mixture occupied 345 ml. The formula of the hyrocarbon isA. `C_(4)H_(8)`B. `C_(3)H_(8)`C. `C_(3)H_(4)`D. `C_(2)H_(4)`
Answer» Correct Answer - B

Discussion

27.	Which of the following statement is correctA. `N_(2)^(+)` is having bond of 2.5B. To get `N^(+)` from `N_(2)^(-)`, electron(s) are removed from antibonding orbitalsC. `B_(2)` molecule is paramagetic with `mu` value of 1.73 Bm.D. In the change of `O_(2) to O_(2)^(+)` the bond length increase
Answer» Correct Answer - A

Discussion

28.	A 2.5 gm impure sample containing weak monoacidic base (Mol. Wt = 45) is dissolved in 100 ml water and titrated with 0.5 M HCL when `((1)/(5))^(th)` of the base was neutralised the pH was found to be 9 and at equivalent point pH of solution is 4.5. Given : All data at `25^(@)C` & log2 = 0.3. Select correct statement(s).A. `k_(b)` of base is less that `10^(6)`B. Concentration of salt (C) at equivalent points is 100 mlC. Volume of HCl is used at equivalent point is 100 mlD. Weight percentage of base in given sample is 80%.
Answer» Correct Answer - B::C

Discussion

29.	An impure sample of `As_(2)O_(3)` weighitng `20 gm` was dissolved in water containing `10 gm` of `NaHCO_(3)` and the final solution was diluted to `400ml`.`20ml` of this solution was oxidised by `25ml` of a solution of `l_(2)`. Another solution of hypo containing `1.24 gm` of `Na_(2)S_(2)O_(3).5H_(2)O` in `40ml` was used to exactly reduce `25 ml` of same `l_(2)` solution (impurities inert) calculate `%` fo `AS_(2)O_(3)` in the sample (at. wt. of `As=75`)
Answer» Correct Answer - `00049.50` `00049.50` `M_("hypo")=(1.24xx1000)/(248xx40)=0.125` meq of hypo`=` meq of `I_(2)` in `25 ml =0.125xx1xx40=5` meq of `l_(2)=` meq of `As_(2)O_(3)=5` meq of `AS_(2)O_(3)` in `20 ml` solution `=5` so meq of `AS_(2)O_(3)` in `400 ml=(5xx400)/20=100` mole of `AS_(2)O_(3)=0.05xx198=9.9g` wt. % `=9.9/20xx100=49.5%`

Discussion

30.	Identify the invalid equationA. `DeltaH = sumH("Products") - sumH("reactants")`B. `DeltaH = DeltaU + PDeltaV`C. `DeltaH^(@)("reaction") = sum H^(@) ("product bonds")- sumH^(@)("reactant bonds")`D. `DeltaH = DeltaU + DeltanRT`
Answer» Correct Answer - C The valid equation is `DeltaH^(@)("reaction") = sum H^(@)("product bonds") - sum H^(@)("reactant bonds")`

Discussion

31.	Which of the following compound has lowest boiling point?A. n-butyl alcoholB. isobutyl alcoholC. tert-butyl alcoholD. sec-butyl alcohol
Answer» Correct Answer - C Tert. Butyl alcohol has lowest boiling point because Boiling point `propto 1/("branching")` As branching increases, surface area decreases.

Discussion

32.	What is the chief constituent of Pyrex glass?A. `B_(2)O_(3)`B. `SiO_(2)`C. `Al_(2)O_(3)`D. `Na_(2)O`
Answer» Correct Answer - B The chief constituent of pyrex glass is `SiO_(2)`

Discussion

33.	A solid cylinder of mass `M` and radius `R` rolls without slipping down an inclined plane of length `L` and height `h`. What is the speed of its center of mass when the cylinder reaches its bottomA. `sqrt((3)/(4))gh`B. `sqrt((4)/(3)gh)`C. `sqrt(4gh)`D. `sqrt(2gh)`
Answer» Correct Answer - B `Mgh = (1)/(2) I omega^(2)+(1)/(2)mv^(2)` `Mgh = (1)/(2)xx(3)/(2)mv^(2)rArr v=sqrt((4)/(3)gh)`

Discussion

34.	A 1 Kg solid sphere rolls without slipping on a rough horizontal suface as shown in figure. Select incorrect alternative A. The acceleration of the centre of the sphere is `9.8 m//s^(2)`B. The acceleration of the centre of the sphere is `10m//s^(2)`C. The direction of frictional force on the sphere is towards rightD. The value of frictional force is 3N
Answer» Correct Answer - A

Discussion

35.	An ideal string pulley system is shown in the figure and system is released from rest choose correct optionA. When mass B moves with speed 4m/s the speed of mass A is 1 m/sB. When mass B moves with speed 1m/s, the speed of mass A is 4m/sC. In the time interval in which the mass A covers distance 8 m, in the same time interval, mass B travels a distance 1m.D. in the time interval in which the mass A covers distance 1m, in the same time inverval, mass B travels a distance 8 m.
Answer» Correct Answer - C `8X_(B)=X_(A)implies8V_(B)implies8a_(B)=a_(A)`

Discussion

36.	An infinitely long rod lies along the axis of a concave mirror of focal length f. The near end of the rod is distance `u gt f` from the mirror. Its image will have lengthA. `(f^(2))/(u-f)`B. `(uf)/(u-f)`C. `(f^(2))/(u+f)`D. `(uf)/(u+f)`
Answer» Correct Answer - A `u_(I) =- u,v_(1) =- ((uf)/(u-f))` `u_(2) = oo, v_(2) =- f` `\|v_(2)\|-\|v_(1)\| = (uf)/(u-f) -f = (uf-uf+f^(2))/(u-f) = (f^(2))/(u-f)`

Discussion

37.	A real point object is kept on the pricipal axis of a concave mirror (radius of curvature `=20cm`) at a distance 60 cm from the pole. Take pole as origin and direction of incident light as positive direction of X axis. Y axis is perpendicular to the principal axis. Select correct statement(s).A. If velocity of object `t=1hati` and velocity of mirror `=0` then velocity of image will be `-(1)/(25)hati`B. If velocity of object `=1hatj` velocity of mirror `=0` then velocity of image will be `-(1)/(5)hatj`C. if velocity of object `=0` and velocity of mirror `=1hati` then velocity of image will be `(1)/(25)hati`D. if velocity of object `=0` ad velocity of mirror `=1hatj` then velocity of image will be `(1)/(5)hatj`
Answer» Correct Answer - A::B `(V_(I//m))^(y)=-m^(2)(V_(0//m))` `(V_(I//m))^(y)=m(V_(0//m))` `m=(f)/(f-u)` `=(-10)/(-10+60)=-(1)/(5)`

Discussion

38.	A thick plane mirror shows a number of images of the filament of an electric bulb. Of these, the brightest image is theA. FirstB. SecondC. LastD. Fourth
Answer» Correct Answer - B A thick mirror forms a number of images. Image is formed by front surface which is unpolished and hence reflects only a small part of light, while second image is formed by polished surface which reflects most of intensity. Hence second image is brightest.

Discussion

39.	An electric dipole is placed in a uniform electric field `vec(E )` of magnitude `40N//C`. Graph shows the magnitude of the square on the dipole versus the angle `theta` between the field `vec(E )` and the dipole moment `vec(p)`. The magnitude of dipole moment `vec(p)` is equal to: A. `2.5 xx 10^(-28)Cm`B. `2.0 xx 10^(-25) Cm`C. `1.25 xx 10^(-28) Cm`D. `5.0 xx 10^(-28) Cm`
Answer» Correct Answer - C `overset(rarr)tau=overset(rarr)pxxoverset(rarr)E` `vectau=vecpxxvecE` `tau_("mas")=pE` or `50xx10^(-28)=p40` or `p=1.25xx10^(-28)C`

Discussion

40.	The projection of `bar(A) = 2hati +2hatj +5hatk` on to `bar(B) = hati -hatj` is:A. ZeroB. `(4)/(sqrt(2))`C. `-(4)/(sqrt(2))`D. 4
Answer» Correct Answer - A Projection of `vec(A)` onto `vec(B) = (vec(A) + vec(B))/(B) =0`.

Discussion

41.	Did you ______ someone pass the window a moment ago? I thought I just saw someone. A) wink B) glimpse C) glare D) frown
Answer» Correct option is B) glimpse

Discussion

42.	An electric dipole is placed in a uniform electric field `vec(E )` of magnitude `40N//C`. Graph shows the magnitude of the square on the dipole versus the angle `theta` between the field `vec(E )` and the dipole moment `vec(p)`. The magnitude of dipole moment `vec(p)` is equal to: A. `1.25xx10^(-28) C-m`B. `2.0xx10^(-25)C-m`C. `2.5xx10%^(-28)C-m`D. `5.0xx10^(-28)C-m`
Answer» Correct Answer - A `vectau=vecpxxvecErArrtau_("max")=pE rArr50xx10^(-28)=p.40` `rArrp=1.25xx10^(-28)C-m`

Discussion

43.	A man is 180 cm tall and his eyes are 10 cm below the top of his head. In order to see his entire height right from tow to head, he uses a plane mirror kept at a distance of 1 m from him. The minimum height of the plane mirror required isA. `90 cm`B. `180 cm`C. `45 cm`D. `360 cm`
Answer» Correct Answer - A `L_(min)=(H)/(2) =(180)/(2)=90 cm`.

Discussion

44.	The speed of A and B are in the ratio 1/4 ∶ 1/5. They both cover a certain distance but A takes 25 minutes less than B. Find the time taken by B to cover the distance?1. 2.08 hr2. 2.50 hr3. 3.08 hr4. 3.50 hr
Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : 2.08 hr Given: The speed of A and B are in the ratio 1/4 ∶ 1/5 and A takes 25 minutes less than B to cover the certain distance. Concept used: Speed = Distance/Time Calculation: Let the ratio be x and the distance be D And the speed of A and B are in the ratio 1/4 ∶ 1/5 = 5 ∶ 4 ∴ The speed of A is 5x and the speed of B is 4x Let A takes t1 time to cover the distance and B takes t2 time to cover the distance Time taken by A = t1 = D/5x And Time taken by B = t2 = D/4x Now, B takes 25 min more than Ram ∴ t2 – t1 = D/4x - D/5x = 25/60 = 25/3x Now, Time taken by B = 25x/3/4x = 2.08 hours ∴ B will take 2.08 hours to cover the same distance

44.

The speed of A and B are in the ratio 1/4 ∶ 1/5. They both cover a certain distance but A takes 25 minutes less than B. Find the time taken by B to cover the distance?1. 2.08 hr2. 2.50 hr3. 3.08 hr4. 3.50 hr

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : 2.08 hr

Given:

The speed of A and B are in the ratio 1/4 ∶ 1/5 and A takes 25 minutes less than B to cover the certain distance.

Concept used:

Speed = Distance/Time

Calculation:

Let the ratio be x and the distance be D

And the speed of A and B are in the ratio 1/4 ∶ 1/5 = 5 ∶ 4

∴ The speed of A is 5x and the speed of B is 4x

Let A takes t1 time to cover the distance and B takes t2 time to cover the distance

Time taken by A = t1 = D/5x

And Time taken by B = t2 = D/4x

Now, B takes 25 min more than Ram

∴ t2 – t1 = D/4x - D/5x = 25/60 = 25/3x

Now, Time taken by B = 25x/3/4x = 2.08 hours

∴ B will take 2.08 hours to cover the same distance

Discussion

45.	A policeman is 102 meters behind the thief. The policeman covers 27 meter and the thief covers 21 meters in a minute. Then after how many minutes a policeman catches the thief?1. 17 minutes2. 18 minutes3. 19 minutes4. 20 minutes
Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : 17 minutes Given: The distance between policeman and thief is 102 meters. The speed of policeman is 27 m/min and the speed of thief is 21 m/min. Formula/Concept used: Speed = Distance/time Concept of relative speed Calculation: Both thief and policeman are running in the same direction then by the concept of relative speed ∴ Relative speed of policeman = (27 – 21) = 6 m/min Now, the distance between policeman and thief is 102 meters ∴ Time taken by the policeman to catch the thief = 102/6 = 17 minutes ∴ The time taken by the policeman to catch the thief is 17 minutes

45.

A policeman is 102 meters behind the thief. The policeman covers 27 meter and the thief covers 21 meters in a minute. Then after how many minutes a policeman catches the thief?1. 17 minutes2. 18 minutes3. 19 minutes4. 20 minutes

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : 17 minutes

Given:

The distance between policeman and thief is 102 meters. The speed of policeman is 27 m/min and the speed of thief is 21 m/min.

Formula/Concept used:

Speed = Distance/time

Concept of relative speed

Calculation:

Both thief and policeman are running in the same direction then by the concept of relative speed

∴ Relative speed of policeman = (27 – 21) = 6 m/min

Now, the distance between policeman and thief is 102 meters

∴ Time taken by the policeman to catch the thief = 102/6 = 17 minutes

∴ The time taken by the policeman to catch the thief is 17 minutes

Discussion

46.	Which Internet giant has launched a training program for online promotion of its products to empower rural self help group (SHG) in Telangana?A. AmazonB. FlipkartC. FacebookD. Twitter1. C2. B3. A4. D
Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : C The Correct Answer is Facebook. Facebook has launched it to promote its product. Facebook India has teamed up with the Telangana government to help rural self-help groups to market their products online. The social media giant has launched a unique training program for the SHGs to promote their products. A self-help group (SHG) is a financial intermediary committee usually composed of 10 to 20 local women or men. SHG is nothing but a group of people who are on daily wages, they form a group and from that group, one person collects the money and gives the money to the person who is in need. The origin of the self-help group can be traced is from the Grameen Bank of Bangladesh, which was founded by Mohamed Yunus. SHG in India can be traced to the formation of the Self-Employed Women's Association (SEWA) in 1970. The SHG Bank Linkage Project launched by NABARD in 1992 has been the world's largest microfinance project. NABARD along with RBI permitted SHGs to have a savings account in banks from the year of 1993.

46.

Which Internet giant has launched a training program for online promotion of its products to empower rural self help group (SHG) in Telangana?A. AmazonB. FlipkartC. FacebookD. Twitter1. C2. B3. A4. D

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : C

The Correct Answer is Facebook.

Facebook has launched it to promote its product.

Facebook India has teamed up with the Telangana government to help rural self-help groups to market their products online.
The social media giant has launched a unique training program for the SHGs to promote their products.
A self-help group (SHG) is a financial intermediary committee usually composed of 10 to 20 local women or men.
SHG is nothing but a group of people who are on daily wages, they form a group and from that group, one person collects the money and gives the money to the person who is in need.

The origin of the self-help group can be traced is from the Grameen Bank of Bangladesh, which was founded by Mohamed Yunus.
SHG in India can be traced to the formation of the Self-Employed Women's Association (SEWA) in 1970.
The SHG Bank Linkage Project launched by NABARD in 1992 has been the world's largest microfinance project.
NABARD along with RBI permitted SHGs to have a savings account in banks from the year of 1993.

Discussion

47.	Consider the following statement regarding the status report on the adverse impact of tourism on Satkosia Tiger Reserve. 1. The National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change.2. Satkosia Tiger Reserve comprises four adjoining sanctuaries of central Odisha.Which among the following statements is/are correct?1. 1 only2. 2 only3. Both 1 and 24. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : 1 only The correct answer is 1 only. The National Tiger Conservation Authority has asked Odisha to submit a status report on the adverse impact of tourism on Satkosia Tiger Reserve. The move came after wildlife activist Biswajit Mohanty alleged that ecotourism activities like camping on sand resorts, river cruise and treetop bridge walks were having an adverse impact on the local wildlife. Mohanty had complained that pitching 20 tents at Badmul on the Mahanadi riverbed inside the Satkosia Tiger Reserve would be extremely harmful to local wildlife. Satkosia Tiger Reserve comprises two adjoining sanctuaries of central Odisha named Satkosia Gorge Sanctuary and Baisipalli Sanctuary. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. This Tiger Reserve lies in a transitional zone extending between the Chhota Nagpur Plateau and the Deccan Plateau. The area supports moist deciduous forest, dry deciduous forest and moist peninsular Sal forest. The National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The objectives of NTCA are:- Providing statutory authority to Project Tiger so that compliance with its directives become legal. Fostering accountability of Center-State in management of Tiger Reserves, by providing a basis for MoU with States within our federal structure. Providing for oversight by Parliament. Addressing livelihood interests of local people in areas surrounding Tiger Reserves. Some of the functions of NTCA are:- To approve the tiger conservation plan. Evaluate and assess various aspects of sustainable ecology and disallow any ecologically unsustainable land use. Lay down normative standards for tourism activities. Provide for management focus and measures for addressing conflicts of men and wild animal. Provide information on protection measures including future conservation plan, estimation of population of tiger and its natural prey species, the status of habitats. Approve, co-ordinate research and monitoring. Facilitate and support the tiger reserve management in the State. Facilitate ongoing capacity building programme.

47.

Consider the following statement regarding the status report on the adverse impact of tourism on Satkosia Tiger Reserve. 1. The National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change.2. Satkosia Tiger Reserve comprises four adjoining sanctuaries of central Odisha.Which among the following statements is/are correct?1. 1 only2. 2 only3. Both 1 and 24. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : 1 only

The correct answer is 1 only.

The National Tiger Conservation Authority has asked Odisha to submit a status report on the adverse impact of tourism on Satkosia Tiger Reserve.

The move came after wildlife activist Biswajit Mohanty alleged that ecotourism activities like camping on sand resorts, river cruise and treetop bridge walks were having an adverse impact on the local wildlife.
Mohanty had complained that pitching 20 tents at Badmul on the Mahanadi riverbed inside the Satkosia Tiger Reserve would be extremely harmful to local wildlife.
Satkosia Tiger Reserve comprises two adjoining sanctuaries of central Odisha named Satkosia Gorge Sanctuary and Baisipalli Sanctuary. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
This Tiger Reserve lies in a transitional zone extending between the Chhota Nagpur Plateau and the Deccan Plateau.
The area supports moist deciduous forest, dry deciduous forest and moist peninsular Sal forest.

The National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The objectives of NTCA are:-
- Providing statutory authority to Project Tiger so that compliance with its directives become legal.
- Fostering accountability of Center-State in management of Tiger Reserves, by providing a basis for MoU with States within our federal structure.
- Providing for oversight by Parliament.
- Addressing livelihood interests of local people in areas surrounding Tiger Reserves.
Some of the functions of NTCA are:-
- To approve the tiger conservation plan.
- Evaluate and assess various aspects of sustainable ecology and disallow any ecologically unsustainable land use.
- Lay down normative standards for tourism activities.
- Provide for management focus and measures for addressing conflicts of men and wild animal.
- Provide information on protection measures including future conservation plan, estimation of population of tiger and its natural prey species, the status of habitats.
- Approve, co-ordinate research and monitoring.
- Facilitate and support the tiger reserve management in the State.
- Facilitate ongoing capacity building programme.

Discussion

48.	The car was traveling at more than 90 miles ______ hour when the accident happened. A) an B) a C) is D) the
Answer» Correct option is A) an

Discussion

49.	A particle moving in a straight line covers half the distance with speed of 3 m/s. The other half of the distance covered in two equal time intervals with speed of 4.5 m/s and 7.5 m/s respectively. The average speed of the particle during this motion is :-A. 4.0 m/sB. 5.0 m/sC. 5.5 m/sD. 4.8 m/s
Answer» Correct Answer - A

Discussion

50.	Terminal potential difference of battery depends onA. currentB. temperatureC. both A and BD. resistance of external resistor
Answer» D. resistance of external resistor

Discussion

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