This section includes InterviewSolutions, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.
| 14301. |
Blue print for genetic information residues in (A) mRNA (B) tRNA (C) rRNA (D) DNA |
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Answer» Correct option (D) DNA |
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| 14302. |
Nonsense codons bring about(A) Amino acid activation (B) Initiation of protein synthesis (C) Termination of protein synthesis (D) Elongation of polypeptide chains |
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Answer» (C) Termination of protein synthesis |
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| 14303. |
Genetic information originates from (A) Cistron of DNA (B) Codons of mRNA (C) Anticodons of tRNA (D) Histones of nucleoproteins |
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Answer» (A) Cistron of DNA |
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| 14304. |
What are the blood types of the ABO blood system? |
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Answer» The blood types of the ABO blood system are the type A, the type B, the type AB and the type O. |
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| 14305. |
What are the antigens and the respective antibodies of the ABO blood group system? |
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Answer» The ABO blood system includes the erythrocytic antigens A and B that can be attacked by the antibodies anti-A and anti-B. The antigens A and B are agglutinogens and the antibodies anti-A and anti-B are agglutinins. |
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| 14306. |
Degeneracy of genetic code implies that (A) Codons do not code for specific amino acid (B) Multiple codons must decode the same amino acids (C) No anticodon on tRNA molecule (D) Specific codon decodes many amino acids |
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Answer» (B) Multiple codons must decode the same amino acids |
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| 14307. |
Why is the determination of the blood types of the donor and of the recipient important in transfusions? |
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Answer» Red blood cells have different antigens in the outer surface of their plasma membrane; for example, the antigens A and B of the ABO system are glycoproteins of the membrane. If a donor has red blood cells with antigens not present in the red blood cells of the recipient (lacking of transfusion compatibility) the immune system of the recipient recognizes these molecules as actual antigens (i.e., foreign substances) and triggers a defense response producing specific antibodies against those antigens. The transfused red blood cells then are destroyed by these antibodies and the recipient individual may even die. |
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| 14308. |
What is the type of genetic inheritance that determines the ABO blood group system? What are the relations of dominance among the involved alleles? |
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Answer» The inheritance of the ABO blood system is a multiple alleles inheritance. There are three involved alleles, IA, IB and i that combine in pairs to form the genotypes. Concerning dominance, the allele i is recessive in relation to the alleles IA and IB. Between IA and IB however lack of dominance is established with the heterozygous (IAIB) manifesting distinct phenotype. |
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| 14309. |
What are universal donors and universal recipients concerning the ABO blood system? |
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Answer» Universals donors of the ABO blood type system are the individuals of the type O. Type O blood does not have antigen A neither antigen B in its red blood cells and can be donated to individuals of any ABO type. Universal recipients of the ABO blood type system are the individuals of the type AB. Type AB blood does not contain antibody anti-A neither antibody anti-B and people of this group can receive blood from any of the ABO types. |
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| 14310. |
What is the logic of the transfusional compatibility concerning the ABO blood group system? |
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Answer» The transfusional compatibility for the ABO system takes into account the antigens present in the red blood cells of the donor and the antibodies that the recipient can produce. Whenever the recipient is not able to produce antibodies against antigens of the red blood cells of the donor the transfusion is compatible. So regarding ABO compatibility type A can donate to type A and to type AB. Type B can donate to type B and to type AB. Type AB can donate only to type AB. Type O can donate to all ABO types. (Blood transfusion must be studied, planned and supervised by doctors.) |
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| 14311. |
How can the hemolytic disease of the newborn be prevented? |
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Answer» Erythroblastosis fetalis can be prevented if in the first delivery of a Rh+ child from a Rh- mother serum containing anti-Rh antibodies is given to the mother in the first 72 hours (after the delivery). Therefore the administered anti-Rh antibodies destroy the fetal red blood cells that entered the mother’s circulation before the triggering of her primary immune response. |
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| 14312. |
What is the Rh typing of the mother and of the fetus in the hemolytic disease of the newborn? |
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Answer» In the hemolytic disease of the newborn the mother is Rh- and the fetus Rh+. In this disease antibodies produced by the mother attack the fetal red blood cells. The hemolytic disease of the new born is also known as erythroblastosis fetalis. |
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| 14313. |
What is the logic of the transfusional compatibility concerning the Rh blood group system? |
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Answer» An Rh+ donor can only donate blood to an Rh+ recipient. A person that lacks the Rh factor (Rh-) can donate to individuals of the Rh+ and Rh- groups. |
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| 14314. |
How is the blood typing concerning the ABO system and the Rh usually done? |
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Answer» In the blood typing for the ABO system and the Rh system a blood sample is collected from the person and three small volumes of the sample are separated and dispersed on glass laminae (slides). On the first lamina serum containing anti-A antibody is dripped; on the second lamina serum containing anti-B antibody is dripped; on the third lamina serum with anti-RH antibody is dripped. If no agglutination reaction takes place in all of the laminae the blood is of type O- (universal donor); if agglutination occurs only in the first lamina the blood is type A-; and so on. There are other methods of blood typing. Blood typing must be performed by qualified technicians. |
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| 14315. |
What is the MN blood system? What is the pattern of genetic inheritance of the MN blood system? |
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Answer» The MN blood system is a third (in addition to the ABO and the Rh) system of blood antigens also related to proteins of the red blood cell plasma membrane. The inheritance pattern of the MN blood system is autosomal with codominance, a type of lack of dominance in which the heterozygous manifests a phenotype totally distinct from the homozygous. The possible phenotypical forms are three blood types: type M blood, type N blood and type MN blood. |
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| 14316. |
How does the immune process that causes the hemolytic disease of the newborn take place? |
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Answer» In the hemolytic disease of the newborn the mother has Rh- blood. This mother when generating her first Rh+ child makes contact, possibly during delivery, with Rh+ red blood cells of the child and her immune system triggers the primary immune response against the Rh factor. In the next gestation in which the fetus is Rh+ the mother will already have much more anti-Rh antibodies in her circulation; these antibodies cross the placental barrier and gain the fetal circulation causing fetal hemolysis (destruction of the red blood cells of the fetus). |
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| 14317. |
What are the inheritance and dominance patterns of the Rh blood system? |
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Answer» The inheritance pattern of the Rh blood system is autosomal dominant, i.e., the heterozygous manifests as Rh+. The dominance is complete (R is dominant over r). The possible genotypes are RR, Rr (both Rh+) and rr (Rh-). Curiosity: the Rh factor is codified by a gene containing 2790 DNA nucleotides situated in the human chromosome 1. |
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| 14318. |
Describe the experiment that helped demonstrate the semi-conservative mode of DNA replication. |
Answer»
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| 14319. |
Who proved the semi-conservative nature of DNA replication? What did they use in this experiment? |
| Answer» Messelson and Stahl proved the semi-conservative nature of DNA replication by using heavy isotope of `N^(15)` and E.coli. | |
| 14320. |
What are chasmogamous flowers? Can cross-pollination occur in cleistogamous flowers? Give reasons for your answer. |
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Answer» There are two types of flowers present in plants namely Oxalis and Viola − chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers. |
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| 14321. |
What is self-incompatibility? Why does self-pollination not lead to seed formation in self-incompatible species? |
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Answer» Self-incompatibility is a genetic mechanism in angiosperms that prevents self-pollination. It develops genetic incompatibility between individuals of the same species or between individuals of different species. The plants which exhibit this phenomenon have the ability to prevent germination of pollen grains and thus, prevent the growth of the pollen tube on the stigma of the flower. This prevents the fusion of the gametes along with the development of the embryo. As a result, no seed formation takes place. |
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| 14322. |
Mention two strategies evolved to prevent self-pollination in flowers. |
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Answer» Self-pollination involves the transfer of pollen from the stamen to the pistil of the same flower. Two strategies that have evolved to prevent self-pollination in flowers are as follows:
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| 14323. |
Identify (a) and (b) in the pie chart given below. |
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Answer» a) Birds b) Amphibians |
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| 14324. |
What is infertility? How infertility is treated by assisted reproductive technologies like IVF – ET and ZIFT? |
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Answer» 1. Inability of a couple to produce children in spite of unprotected sexual cohabitation OR 2. Inability of a couple to conceive or produce children even after 2 years of unprotected sexual cohabitation. 1. In vitro fertilization and embryo transfer (IVF-ET) In this technique egg cells are fertilized by sperm (usually 100,000 sperm / ml) outside the body in almost similar conditions as that in the body. In this process Ova from the wife or donor female and sperm from husband or donor male are allowed to fuse in shallow containers called Petri dishes. (Made of glass or plastic resins) under laboratory condition. The fertilized egg (zygote) is then transferred to the patient’s uterus, is this called embryo transfer (E.T.), Where she provides suitable conditions for the development of embryo. The baby born by this technique is called test tube baby. 2. ZIFT ( Zygote intra fallopian transfer) Zygote or early embryo up to eight blastoineres is transferred into the fallopian tube. |
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| 14325. |
Explain the working of Central Vigilance Commission. |
Answer»
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| 14326. |
Compare and the list out central vigilance commission and state vigilance commission. |
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Answer» Central Vigilance Commission : The Central Vigilance Commission constituted at national level to prevent Corruption, Central Vigilance Commission, it came into effect into 1964, Formed to prevent corruption in central government offices, in every department there will be a chief vigilance officer. State Vigilance Commission : Constituted at State level to prevent corruption, Inquires in to corruption in the state government offices. |
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| 14327. |
The Attorney General of India holds office during the pleasure of the: (a) President (b) Prime Minister (c) Parliament (d) Chief Justice |
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Answer» The Attorney General of India holds office during the pleasure of the President. |
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| 14328. |
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India submits his report relating to the accounts of the Union to the(a) Prime Minister(b) Finance Minister(c) President(d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha |
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Answer» The Comptroller and Auditor General of India submits his report relating to the accounts of the Union to the President |
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| 14329. |
The salary and conditions of service of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India shall be(a) statutory (i.e. as laid down by Parliament by law)(b) fixed by the President of India(c) finalised by the Finance Minister(d) fixed by the Governor, Reserve Bank of India |
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Answer» The salary and conditions of service of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India shall be statutory |
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| 14330. |
Term of Comptroller and Auditor General of India is:(a) 6 years (b) 65 years of age (c) 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier (d) None of the above |
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Answer» Term of Comptroller and Auditor General of India is 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier. |
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| 14331. |
The functions of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India include auditing and reporting on the receipts and expenditure of: (a) Union Government only (b) State Government only (c) Union and State Governments (d) Union and State Governments and companies substantially financed by both |
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Answer» The functions of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India include auditing and reporting on the receipts and expenditure of Union and State Governments. |
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| 14332. |
After the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General is laid before Parliament it is examined by the(a) Estimates Committee(b) Public Accounts Committee(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha(d) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha |
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Answer» (b) Public Accounts Committee |
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| 14333. |
The First Indian to become the Comptroller and Auditor General of India was(a) CD Deshmukh(b) A Bakshi(c) CV Narahari Rao(d) Dr John Matthai |
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Answer» The First Indian to become the Comptroller and Auditor General of India was CV Narahari Rao |
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| 14334. |
The _____ on the advice of the Comptroller and Auditor General prescribes the form in which the accounts of the Union and of the State are to be kept.(a) Union Finance Minister(b) Prime Minister(c) Cabinet Secretary(d) President |
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Answer» The President on the advice of the Comptroller and Auditor General prescribes the form in which the accounts of the Union and of the State are to be kept. |
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| 14335. |
In which year Central Vigilance Commission come into effect ? |
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Answer» In 1964 Central Vigilance Commission come into effect. |
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| 14336. |
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the(a) Prime Minister(b) President(c) Parliament(d) Vice-President |
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Answer» The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the President |
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| 14337. |
The Comptroller and Auditor General can be removed from office: (a) in the same way as the President can be removed (b) in the same manner as that prescribed for the removal of a Supreme Court Judge (c) by the President on a report by the Supreme Court (d) in none of the above ways |
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Answer» (b) in the same manner as that prescribed for the removal of a Supreme Court Judge |
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| 14338. |
The first proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 was made by the President on(a) October 12, 1960(b) October 26, 1962(c) November 1, 1961(d) November 1, 1962 |
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Answer» The first proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 was made by the President on October 26, 1962 |
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| 14339. |
a) Wall lizard b)flying lizard c)garden lizard d)tuatara lizard |
| Answer» Option a is the correct ans | |
| 14340. |
Veteran Gandhian leader Potti Snramulu went on hunger strike in 1952, demanding the formation of which of the following States?1. Telangana2. Tamil Nadu3. Kerala4. Andhra Pradesh |
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Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : Andhra Pradesh Potti Sreeramulu, the man who fasted onto death for the sake of statehood for Andhra was born on 16 March 1901.
Thus, it is clear that Potti Sriramulu went on a hunger strike for Andhra Pradesh to protect the interest of Telugu speakers. |
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| 14341. |
Which of the following statements is/are true?(A) After the Nagpur Session (1920) of Congress, the provincial Congress Committees were constituted on a linguistic basis.(B) In 1948, Congress rejected the demand of formation of provinces on linguistic basis.Select the correct answer from the code below:1. Only (A)2. Only (B)3. Neither (A) nor (B)4. Both (A) & (B) |
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Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : Both (A) & (B) The correct answer is Both (A) & (B).
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| 14342. |
Who among the following was NOT a member of States Reorganisation Committee constituted in 1953?1. Fazal Ali2. Pattabhi Sitarammayya3. Hridaynath Kunzru4. K.M. Panikkar |
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Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Pattabhi Sitarammayya The correct answer is Pattabhi Sitarammayya.
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| 14343. |
The inventor of the Cape Route from Europe to India was ___________.1. Francisco De Almeida2. Alfonso De Albuquerque3. Vasco De Gama4. Gerald Aungier |
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Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Vasco De Gama The correct answer is Vasco De Gama.
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| 14344. |
Arrange in appropriate order (formation of the States) :a. Mizoramb. Nagalandc. Meghalayad. Maharashtra1. a, d, b, c2. d, b, c, a 3. c, d, b, a 4. d, b, a, c |
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Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : d, b, c, a The Correct answer is d, b, c, a.
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| 14345. |
1971 was for liberation of Bangladesh was fought between which all countries?1. India and Bangladesh2. China and Pakistan3. India and China4. India and Pakistan |
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Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : India and Pakistan The correct answer is India and Pakistan.
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| 14346. |
During which of the following periods did Morarji Desai serve as the Deputy Prime Minister of India?1. 1970-19712. 1967-19693. 1966-19674. 1964-1966 |
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Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : 1967-1969 The correct answer is 1967-1969.
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| 14347. |
The first Five-Year Plan’s main emphasis was to improve the condition of agriculture in India. The plan began in the year_________.1. 19532. 19493. 19524. 1951 |
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Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : 1951 The correct answer is 1951.
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| 14348. |
Who is known for the “Bhoodan Movement”?1. MG Ranade2. JP Narayan3. Jagjivan Ram4. Vinoba Bhave |
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Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : Vinoba Bhave The correct answer is Vinoba Bhave.
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| 14349. |
The first Education Minister of Independent India was ______.1. Abul Kalam Azad2. Triguna Sen3. Pranab Mukherjee4. Indira Gandhi |
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Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : Abul Kalam Azad The correct answer is Abul Kalam Azad.
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| 14350. |
The atmosphere of Mars is mostly composed of ______1. Ammonia2. Carbon dioxide3. Oxygen4. Hydrogen |
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Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Carbon dioxide The correct answer is Carbon dioxide.
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