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14301.

Blue print for genetic information residues in (A) mRNA (B) tRNA (C) rRNA (D) DNA

Answer»

Correct option (D) DNA

14302.

Nonsense codons bring about(A) Amino acid activation (B) Initiation of protein synthesis (C) Termination of protein synthesis (D) Elongation of polypeptide chains 

Answer»

(C) Termination of protein synthesis

14303.

Genetic information originates from (A) Cistron of DNA (B) Codons of mRNA (C) Anticodons of tRNA (D) Histones of nucleoproteins

Answer»

(A) Cistron of DNA

14304.

What are the blood types of the ABO blood system?

Answer»

The blood types of the ABO blood system are the type A, the type B, the type AB and the type O. 

14305.

What are the antigens and the respective antibodies of the ABO blood group system?

Answer»

The ABO blood system includes the erythrocytic antigens A and B that can be attacked by the antibodies anti-A and anti-B.

The antigens A and B are agglutinogens and the antibodies anti-A and anti-B are agglutinins.

14306.

Degeneracy of genetic code implies that (A) Codons do not code for specific amino acid (B) Multiple codons must decode the same amino acids (C) No anticodon on tRNA molecule (D) Specific codon decodes many amino acids

Answer»

(B) Multiple codons must decode the same amino acids

14307.

Why is the determination of the blood types of the donor and of the recipient important in transfusions?

Answer»

Red blood cells have different antigens in the outer surface of their plasma membrane; for example, the antigens A and B of the ABO system are glycoproteins of the membrane. If a donor has red blood cells with antigens not present in the red blood cells of the recipient (lacking of transfusion compatibility) the immune system of the recipient recognizes these molecules as actual antigens (i.e., foreign substances) and triggers a defense response producing specific antibodies against those antigens. The transfused red blood cells then are destroyed by these antibodies and the recipient individual may even die. 

14308.

What is the type of genetic inheritance that determines the ABO blood group system? What are the relations of dominance among the involved alleles?

Answer»

The inheritance of the ABO blood system is a multiple alleles inheritance. There are three involved alleles, IA, IB and i that combine in pairs to form the genotypes.

Concerning dominance, the allele i is recessive in relation to the alleles IA and IB. Between IA and IB however lack of dominance is established with the heterozygous (IAIB) manifesting distinct phenotype.

14309.

What are universal donors and universal recipients concerning the ABO blood system?

Answer»

Universals donors of the ABO blood type system are the individuals of the type O. Type O blood does not have antigen A neither antigen B in its red blood cells and can be donated to individuals of any ABO type.

Universal recipients of the ABO blood type system are the individuals of the type AB. Type AB blood does not contain antibody anti-A neither antibody anti-B and people of this group can receive blood from any of the ABO types.

14310.

What is the logic of the transfusional compatibility concerning the ABO blood group system?

Answer»

The transfusional compatibility for the ABO system takes into account the antigens present in the red blood cells of the donor and the antibodies that the recipient can produce. Whenever the recipient is not able to produce antibodies against antigens of the red blood cells of the donor the transfusion is compatible.

So regarding ABO compatibility type A can donate to type A and to type AB. Type B can donate to type B and to type AB. Type AB can donate only to type AB. Type O can donate to all ABO types.

(Blood transfusion must be studied, planned and supervised by doctors.)

14311.

How can the hemolytic disease of the newborn be prevented?

Answer»

Erythroblastosis fetalis can be prevented if in the first delivery of a Rh+ child from a Rh- mother serum containing anti-Rh antibodies is given to the mother in the first 72 hours (after the delivery). Therefore the administered anti-Rh antibodies destroy the fetal red blood cells that entered the mother’s circulation before the triggering of her primary immune response.

14312.

What is the Rh typing of the mother and of the fetus in the hemolytic disease of the newborn?

Answer»

In the hemolytic disease of the newborn the mother is Rh- and the fetus Rh+. In this disease antibodies produced by the mother attack the fetal red blood cells.

The hemolytic disease of the new born is also known as erythroblastosis fetalis. 

14313.

What is the logic of the transfusional compatibility concerning the Rh blood group system?

Answer»

An Rh+ donor can only donate blood to an Rh+ recipient. A person that lacks the Rh factor (Rh-) can donate to individuals of the Rh+ and Rh- groups.

14314.

How is the blood typing concerning the ABO system and the Rh usually done?

Answer»

In the blood typing for the ABO system and the Rh system a blood sample is collected from the person and three small volumes of the sample are separated and dispersed on glass laminae (slides). On the first lamina serum containing anti-A antibody is dripped; on the second lamina serum containing anti-B antibody is dripped; on the third lamina serum with anti-RH antibody is dripped. If no agglutination reaction takes place in all of the laminae the blood is of type O- (universal donor); if agglutination occurs only in the first lamina the blood is type A-; and so on.

There are other methods of blood typing. Blood typing must be performed by qualified technicians.

14315.

What is the MN blood system? What is the pattern of genetic inheritance of the MN blood system?

Answer»

The MN blood system is a third (in addition to the ABO and the Rh) system of blood antigens also related to proteins of the red blood cell plasma membrane.

The inheritance pattern of the MN blood system is autosomal with codominance, a type of lack of dominance in which the heterozygous manifests a phenotype totally distinct from the homozygous. The possible phenotypical forms are three blood types: type M blood, type N blood and type MN blood.

14316.

How does the immune process that causes the hemolytic disease of the newborn take place?

Answer»

In the hemolytic disease of the newborn the mother has Rh- blood. This mother when generating her first Rh+ child makes contact, possibly during delivery, with Rh+ red blood cells of the child and her immune system triggers the primary immune response against the Rh factor. In the next gestation in which the fetus is Rh+ the mother will already have much more anti-Rh antibodies in her circulation; these antibodies cross the placental barrier and gain the fetal circulation causing fetal hemolysis (destruction of the red blood cells of the fetus).

14317.

What are the inheritance and dominance patterns of the Rh blood system?

Answer»

The inheritance pattern of the Rh blood system is autosomal dominant, i.e., the heterozygous manifests as Rh+. The dominance is complete (R is dominant over r). The possible genotypes are RR, Rr (both Rh+) and rr (Rh-). 

Curiosity: the Rh factor is codified by a gene containing 2790 DNA nucleotides situated in the human chromosome 1.

14318.

Describe the experiment that helped demonstrate the semi-conservative mode of DNA replication.

Answer»
  • Meselson and Stahl, in their experiments, grew E.coli in a medium containing 15NH4Cl as the only source of nitrogen for a number of generations.
  • As a consequence, the heavy isotope of nitrogen, 15N, was incorporated into the DNA as well as other nitrogenous compounds.
  • This heavy DNA molecule, i.e., 15N/15N DNA, can be distinguished from the normal 14N/14N DNA, by cerium chloride density gradient centrifugation based on their densities.
  • Then the cells were transferred to a medium containing 14NH4Cl (normal nitrogen) and samples were taken at definite time intervals.
  • They isolated the DNA and the samples were independently centrifuged on CsCl density gradient to measure the densities of the DNA.
  • The DNA isolated after one generation (after 20 minutes) of transfer to 14N medium, had a hybrid or intermedciate density; it is because of semiconservative replication.
  • The DNA isolated after two generations (after 40 minutes) has equal amounts of hybrid density DNA and light (14N/14N) DNA, showing semiconservative replication.
14319.

Who proved the semi-conservative nature of DNA replication? What did they use in this experiment?

Answer» Messelson and Stahl proved the semi-conservative nature of DNA replication by using heavy isotope of `N^(15)` and E.coli.
14320.

What are chasmogamous flowers? Can cross-pollination occur in cleistogamous flowers? Give reasons for your answer.

Answer»

There are two types of flowers present in plants namely Oxalis and Viola − chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers.
Chasmogamous flowers have exposed anthers and stigmata similar to the flowers of other species.
Cross-pollination cannot occur in cleistogamous flowers. This is because cleistogamous flowers never open at all. Also, the anther and the stigma lie close to each other in these flowers. Hence, only self-pollination is possible in these flowers.

14321.

What is self-incompatibility? Why does self-pollination not lead to seed formation in self-incompatible species?

Answer»

Self-incompatibility is a genetic mechanism in angiosperms that prevents self-pollination. It develops genetic incompatibility between individuals of the same species or between individuals of different species. The plants which exhibit this phenomenon have the ability to prevent germination of pollen grains and thus, prevent the growth of the pollen tube on the stigma of the flower. This prevents the fusion of the gametes along with the development of the embryo. As a result, no seed formation takes place.

14322.

Mention two strategies evolved to prevent self-pollination in flowers.

Answer»

Self-pollination involves the transfer of pollen from the stamen to the pistil of the same flower. Two strategies that have evolved to prevent self-pollination in flowers are as follows:

  • In certain plants, the stigma of the flower hasthecapability to prevent the germination of pollen grains and hence, prevent the growth of the pollen tube.It is a genetic mechanism to prevent self-pollination called self- incompatibility. Incompatibility may be between individuals of the same species or between individuals of different species. Thus, incompatibility prevents breeding.
  •  In some plants, the gynoecium matures before the androecium or vice-versa. This phenomenon is known as protogyny or protandry respectively. This prevents the pollen from coming in contact with the stigma of the same flower.
14323.

Identify (a) and (b) in the pie chart given below.

Answer»

a) Birds 

b) Amphibians

14324.

What is infertility? How infertility is treated by assisted reproductive technologies like IVF – ET and ZIFT?

Answer»

1. Inability of a couple to produce children in spite of unprotected sexual cohabitation 

OR 

2. Inability of a couple to conceive or produce children even after 2 years of unprotected sexual cohabitation. 

1. In vitro fertilization and embryo transfer (IVF-ET) 

In this technique egg cells are fertilized by sperm (usually 100,000 sperm / ml) outside the body in almost similar conditions as that in the body. 

In this process Ova from the wife or donor female and sperm from husband or donor male are allowed to fuse in shallow containers called Petri dishes. (Made of glass or plastic resins) under laboratory condition.

The fertilized egg (zygote) is then transferred to the patient’s uterus, is this called embryo transfer (E.T.), Where she provides suitable conditions for the development of embryo. The baby born by this technique is called test tube baby. 

2. ZIFT ( Zygote intra fallopian transfer) 

Zygote or early embryo up to eight blastoineres is transferred into the fallopian tube.

14325.

Explain the working of Central Vigilance Commission.

Answer»
  • Central Vigilance Commission is the institution constituted at national level in 1964 to prevent corruption. 
  • Formed to prevent corruption in the central government offices. 
  • The Central Vigilance Commissioner is the head of the Central Vigilance Commission. 
  • The duty of the Commission is to enquire into vigilance cases and take necessary actions.
14326.

Compare and the list out central vigilance commission and state vigilance commission.

Answer»

Central Vigilance Commission : 

The Central Vigilance Commission constituted at national level to prevent Corruption, Central Vigilance Commission, it came into effect into 1964, Formed to prevent corruption in central government offices, in every department there will be a chief vigilance officer.

State Vigilance Commission : 

Constituted at State level to prevent corruption, Inquires in to corruption in the state government offices.

14327.

The Attorney General of India holds office during the pleasure of the: (a) President (b) Prime Minister (c) Parliament (d) Chief Justice

Answer»

The Attorney General of India holds office during the pleasure of the President.

14328.

The Comptroller and Auditor General of India submits his report relating to the accounts of the Union to the(a) Prime Minister(b) Finance Minister(c) President(d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Answer»

The Comptroller and Auditor General of India submits his report relating to the accounts of the Union to the  President

14329.

The salary and conditions of service of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India shall be(a) statutory (i.e. as laid down by Parliament by law)(b) fixed by the President of India(c) finalised by the Finance Minister(d) fixed by the Governor, Reserve Bank of India

Answer»

The salary and conditions of service of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India shall be  statutory 

14330.

Term of Comptroller and Auditor General of India is:(a) 6 years (b) 65 years of age (c) 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier (d) None of the above

Answer»

Term of Comptroller and Auditor General of India is 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier.

14331.

The functions of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India include auditing and reporting on the receipts and expenditure of: (a) Union Government only (b) State Government only (c) Union and State Governments (d) Union and State Governments and companies substantially financed by both

Answer»

The functions of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India include auditing and reporting on the receipts and expenditure of Union and State Governments.

14332.

After the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General is laid before Parliament it is examined by the(a) Estimates Committee(b) Public Accounts Committee(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha(d) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

Answer»

(b) Public Accounts Committee

14333.

The First Indian to become the Comptroller and Auditor General of India was(a) CD Deshmukh(b) A Bakshi(c) CV Narahari Rao(d) Dr John Matthai

Answer»

The First Indian to become the Comptroller and Auditor General of India was  CV Narahari Rao

14334.

The _____ on the advice of the Comptroller and Auditor General prescribes the form in which the accounts of the Union and of the State are to be kept.(a) Union Finance Minister(b) Prime Minister(c) Cabinet Secretary(d) President

Answer»

The President on the advice of the Comptroller and Auditor General prescribes the form in which the accounts of the Union and of the State are to be kept.

14335.

In which year Central Vigilance Commission come into effect ?

Answer»

In 1964 Central Vigilance Commission come into effect.

14336.

The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the(a) Prime Minister(b) President(c) Parliament(d) Vice-President

Answer»

The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the  President

14337.

The Comptroller and Auditor General can be removed from office: (a) in the same way as the President can be removed (b) in the same manner as that prescribed for the removal of a Supreme Court Judge (c) by the President on a report by the Supreme Court (d) in none of the above ways

Answer»

(b) in the same manner as that prescribed for the removal of a Supreme Court Judge

14338.

The first proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 was made by the President on(a) October 12, 1960(b) October 26, 1962(c) November 1, 1961(d) November 1, 1962

Answer»

The first proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 was made by the President on October 26, 1962

14339.

a) Wall lizard b)flying lizard c)garden lizard d)tuatara lizard

Answer» Option a  is the correct  ans
14340.

Veteran Gandhian leader Potti Snramulu went on hunger strike in 1952, demanding the formation of which of the following States?1. Telangana2. Tamil Nadu3. Kerala4. Andhra Pradesh

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : Andhra Pradesh

Potti Sreeramulu, the man who fasted onto death for the sake of statehood for Andhra was born on 16 March 1901.

  • After independence, the modern state of Andhra Pradesh (along with Telangana) was divided between the Nizam’s Hyderabad State and the northern districts of Madras State.
  • There was a growing demand for the formation of states on the basis of languages.
  • Telugu-speaking people wanted a separate state but the C Rajagopalachari-led Madras State was not particularly sympathetic to this demand.
  • This was especially because the city of Madras (now Chennai) was a contentious factor with both Telugu and Tamil populations staking a claim for it.
  • Sreeramulu started a fast on 19 October 1952. The then prime minister Jawaharlal Nehru assured his support for the creation of Andhra Pradesh.
  • Finally, he died on 15 December 1952 after about 58 days of commencing his fast. This resulted in widespread rioting and violence in many regions in Andhra.
  • Protests continued for about four more days and on 29 December, Nehru announced his decision to form a separate Andhra state.

Thus, it is clear that Potti Sriramulu went on a hunger strike for Andhra Pradesh to protect the interest of Telugu speakers.

14341.

Which of the following statements is/are true?(A) After the Nagpur Session (1920) of Congress, the provincial Congress Committees were constituted on a linguistic basis.(B) In 1948, Congress rejected the demand of formation of provinces on linguistic basis.Select the correct answer from the code below:1. Only (A)2. Only (B)3. Neither (A) nor (B)4. Both (A) & (B)

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : Both (A) & (B)

The correct answer is Both (A) & (B).

  • After the Nagpur Session (1920) of Congress, the provincial Congress Committees were constituted on a linguistic basis.

​​​

  • In 1920, two sessions of Congress were held:
    • 1920 (Special Session): Calcutta.
      • President: Lala Lajpat Rai
      • Mahatma Gandhi moved the Non-cooperation resolution
    • 1920: Nagpur. 
      • President: C. Vijayaraghavachariar
      • Reconstitution of Working committees of Congress on Linguistic basis. Hence the statement A is correct.
      • MA Jinnah left the Indian National Congress

  • Nagpur Session (1920) of Congress
    • S​ignificance of the Congress session at Nagpur in December 1920 
      • On 1 August 1920, Non-Cooperation Movement was announced.
      • The Movement started with strikes and processions all over India.
      • On 4 September 1920, Congress met at Calcutta in a special session.
      • This special session was presided by Lala Lajpat Rai. 
      • In this session, Gandhi wrongly predicted that if the Non-cooperation movement gets successful, Swaraj could be attained in one year.
      • This was immediately discarded by CR Das.
      • In December 1920, Congress met once again in the Nagpur Session to solve the deadlock over Calcutta session.
      • This time the disagreements of CR das had melted away.
      • A resolution was passed in favour of Non-cooperation. 
      • A reconstitution for the reorganisation of Working committees of Congress on Linguistic basis was also passed here.
  • Reorganization of states
    • In 1948, the government appointed a commission under S K Dhar, a judge of the Allahabad High Court, to examine the case for the reorganization of states on the linguistic basis.
    • It favoured reorganization on the basis of administrative convenience rather than linguistic considerations.
    • The committee submitted the report on April 1949, dismissed the idea of reorganization on a linguistic basis. So statement B is correct.

  • States Reorganisation Commission
    • ​SK Dhar commission
      • In June 1948, Rajendra Prasad set up the Linguistic Provinces Commission (Dhar Commission) to recommend whether the states should be reorganised on the linguistic basis or not.
      • The committee included SK Dhar (retired Judge of the Allahabad High Court), Jagat Narain Lal (lawyer and member of constituent assembly) and Panna Lall (retired Indian Civil Service officer).
      • In its report, the Commission recommended that "the formation of provinces on exclusively or even mainly linguistic considerations is not in the larger interests of the Indian nation''.
14342.

Who among the following was NOT a member of States Reorganisation Committee constituted in 1953?1. Fazal Ali2. Pattabhi Sitarammayya3. Hridaynath Kunzru4. K.M. Panikkar

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Pattabhi Sitarammayya

The correct answer is Pattabhi Sitarammayya.

  • Pattabhi Sitarammayya was not a member of States Reorganisation Committee constituted in 1953.

  • States Reorganisation Commission:
    • ​The States Reorganisation Commission was formed after the Linguistic Provinces Commission (Dhar Commission) of 1948. 
    • Dhar Commission​ rejected language as a parameter for formation or division of states.
    • Then the States Reorganisation Commission was appointed by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru on December 1953.
    • The commission was headed by the retired Chief Justice of the Supreme Court Fazal Ali.
    • Its other two members were H. N. Kunzru and K. M. Panikkar.

  • A simple majority and ordinary legislative procedures are enough for Parliament to form new states or to change existing State boundaries.
  • 3 committees related to state reorganisation:
    • S.K Dhar Commission, 1948.
    • Jawaharlal Nehru, Sardar Patel and Pattabhi Sitaramayya Committee (JVP Committee).
    • States Reorganisation Commission,1953 or Fazal Ali Commission.
14343.

The inventor of the Cape Route from Europe to India was ___________.1. Francisco De Almeida2. Alfonso De Albuquerque3. Vasco De Gama4. Gerald Aungier

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Vasco De Gama

The correct answer is Vasco De Gama.

  • The Cape Route was discovered by Vasco De Gama in 1498 AD. He reached the port of Calicut on the 20th May 1498 AD.
  • He was a Portuguese navigator,  who discovered the sea route from western Europe to the East by way of the Cape of Good Hope.
  • In 1524, Vasco de Gama was appointed Governor of India, with the title of Viceroy, and was ennobled as Count of Vidigueira in the year 1519.

  • Francisco de Almeida  was the first governor and Viceroy of the Portueguese state of India.
  • Alfonso de Albuquerque was the second Governor Portuguese state of India. He introduced the "Policy of Imperialism".
  • Gerald Aungier was the second Governor of Bombay in the year 1669.
14344.

Arrange in appropriate order (formation of the States) :a. Mizoramb. Nagalandc. Meghalayad. Maharashtra1. a, d, b, c2. d, b, c, a 3. c, d, b, a 4. d, b, a, c

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : d, b, c, a 

The Correct answer is d, b, c, a.

States Formation Year
Maharashtra and Gujrat1960
Nagaland1963
Haryana1966
Manipur, Tripura, Meghalaya1972
Sikkim1975
Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa1987
Chattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Jharkhand2000

 

14345.

1971 was for liberation of Bangladesh was fought between which all countries?1. India and Bangladesh2. China and Pakistan3. India and China4. India and Pakistan

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : India and Pakistan

The correct answer is India and Pakistan.

  • During the Indo-Pak war 1971 Bangladesh Liberation War, Bengali's nationalists; formed the Mukti Bahini (Bangladeshi National Liberation Army) and established the Government of Bangladesh on 17th April 1971.
    • The Constituent Assembly of Bangladesh adopted the Constitution on 4 November 1972 and established the Secular, Multiparty Parliamentary Democracy.
  • Bangladesh was one of the major reforms as a country after the war of 1971.
    • Dhaka is the capital of Bangladesh.
    • It is the Eighth-most popular country in the world, with a population across 162 million people.
    • Bangladesh shares the land borders with Myanmar to the South-East, India to the West, North, and East, and the Bay of Bengal to the South.
    • It is narrowly separated from China by Sikkim in the north, and Nepal and Bhutan by the Siliguri Corridor.
    • Bangladesh is the only country in the World that was created on the basis of Ethnicity and Language.
    • The total population of Bangladesh is Bengalis by about 98%.
    • It is the third-largest majority Muslim country in the world.
14346.

During which of the following periods did Morarji Desai serve as the Deputy Prime Minister of India?1. 1970-19712. 1967-19693. 1966-19674. 1964-1966

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : 1967-1969

The correct answer is 1967-1969.

  • He became deputy prime minister in 1967.
  • In 1969 he resigned to become chairman of the opposition to Indira Gandhi. 
  • Dr Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan was President of India during this period.
  • Indira Gandhi  was Prime Minister of India during this period 1967-1977 and again from 1980 to 1984
  • He died on April 10, 1995.
14347.

The first Five-Year Plan’s main emphasis was to improve the condition of agriculture in India. The plan began in the year_________.1. 19532. 19493. 19524. 1951

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : 1951 

The correct answer is 1951.

  • The first Five-Year Plan’s main emphasis was to improve the condition of agriculture in India. The plan began in the year 1951.
  •  After independence, India launched its First FYP in 1951, under the socialist influence of the first Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru.
  • The Plan Focussed on agriculture, price stability, power, and transport It was based on the Harrod-Domar Model. 
  • The process began with the setting up of Planning Commission in March 1950 in pursuance of declared objectives of the Government to promote a rapid rise in the standard of living of the people by efficient exploitation of the resources of the country, increasing production and offering opportunities to all for employment in the service of the community.
  • The first Five-year Plan was launched in 1951 and two subsequent five-year plans were formulated till 1965 when there was a break because of the Indo-Pakistan Conflict.
14348.

Who is known for the “Bhoodan Movement”?1. MG Ranade2. JP Narayan3. Jagjivan Ram4. Vinoba Bhave

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : Vinoba Bhave

The correct answer is Vinoba Bhave.

  • Bhoodan Movement was started by Mahatma Gandhi’s disciple Vinoba Bhave in April 1951.
  • It was started from Pochampali in Telangana.
  • It is also known as the Bloodless Revolution was a voluntary land reform movement in India.
  • Bhoodan ('bhoo' means land; 'Dhan' means donation) it's a moment aimed to stop landlords to acquire more land.
  • They did padayatra and asked rich peasants to give 1/6th of their land so as to collect 50 million acres of land, but despite their best efforts, they could only collect 8.7 lakh acres of land, which they distributed among the poor and the landless.

  • Central and State governments had provided the necessary assistance to Vinoba Bhave.
  • Bhoodan gave way to the Gramdan movement which began in 1952.
  • The objective of the Gramdan movement was to persuade landowners and leaseholders in each village to renounce their land rights and all the lands would become the property of a village association for egalitarian redistribution and joint cultivation.  
14349.

The first Education Minister of Independent India was ______.1. Abul Kalam Azad2. Triguna Sen3. Pranab Mukherjee4. Indira Gandhi

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : Abul Kalam Azad

The correct answer is Abul Kalam Azad.

  • The first Education Minister of Independent India was Abul Kalam Azad.

  • India's first Education Minister, Maulana Abul Kalam Azad is popularly known as Maulana Azad.
  • He was the visionary behind India's premier institutes - the IITs, IISc, and School of Architecture and Planning.
  • He was also responsible for setting up apex bodies such as AICTE and UGC.
  • Not just primary education and literacy but, Azad was also instrumental in the promotion of culture and literature through education.
  • Most of the cultural and literary academies we see today such as Lalit Kala Academy, Sahitya Academy, etc. were established by him.
  • He also stressed vocational training and diversification of secondary education.

  • Triguna Sen:-
    • He was the Union Minister for education in the Government of India.
    • He got Padma Bhushan in 1965.
  • Pranab Kumar Mukherjee:-
    • He was an Indian statesman who serves as the 13th President of India from 2012 until 2017.
    • He was also a senior leader in the Indian National Congress and occupied several ministerial portfolios in the Government of India.
  • Indira Priyadarshini Gandhi:-
    • She was an Indian politician and a central figure of the Indian National Congress.
    • She was the first and, to date, only female Prime Minister of India. Indira Gandhi was the daughter of Jawaharlal Nehru, the first prime minister of India.
14350.

The atmosphere of Mars is mostly composed of ______1. Ammonia2. Carbon dioxide3. Oxygen4. Hydrogen

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Carbon dioxide

The correct answer is Carbon dioxide.

  • The atmosphere of Mars is mostly composed of 95.32 % Carbon dioxide.
  • 2.6 Percent of Molecular nitrogen and 1.9 per cent of Argon are also present in the Mars Atmosphere.
  • Methane, Sulfur dioxide is also present in the Mars atmosphere.
  • It also contains trace levels of water vapour, oxygen, carbon monoxide, hydrogen, and other noble gases.

  • The surface pressure of Mars is 610 Pascals and its gravity is 1/3rd of earth.
  • One Martian day equals 24 hours 37 minutes.
  • Mars has two moons viz. Phobos and Deimos.

  • The Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM) or Mangalyaan, is a space probe launched by the Indian Space Research Organization on 5th November 2013.
  • Mangalyaan was India's first interplanetary mission.
  • MOM was launched aboard PSLV C-25.