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401.

A person was saved from poisonous snake bite by anti-venom injection. Which of the following immunities explains this form of protection?(a) Naturally acquired active immunity(b) Artificially acquired active immunity(c) Naturally acquired passive immunity(d) Artificially acquired passive immunity

Answer»

Answer is : (d) Artificially acquired passive immunity

Antivenom injection provides artificial acquired passive immunity. Passive immunity is the transfer of active humoral immunity of readymade antibodies. It can occur naturally, when maternal antibodies are transferred to foetus through placenta and it can be induced artificially when high level of antibodies specific to a pathogen or toxin are transferred to non-immune persons through blood products that contain antibodies, such as antivenom injections are given.

402.

A person was saved from poisonous snake bite by antivenom injection. Which of the following immunity explains this form of protection?  (A) Naturally acquired active immunity (B) Artificially acquired active immunity  (C) Naturally acquired passive immunity (D) Artificially acquired passive immunity 

Answer»

Correct option (D) Artificially acquired passive immunity

Explanation:

Antivenom injection have performed antibodies against snake poison. 

So, using antivenom injection is develops artificial aquired passive immunity. 

403.

Both gout and kidney stone formation is caused by(a) calcium oxalate(b) uric acid(c) creatinine(d) potassium chloride

Answer»

Answer is : (b) uric acid

Gout is caused by the deposition of uric acid in joints. Composition of kidney stone is calcium oxalate, calcium phosphate, uric acid, xanthine and indigo calculi. Researches have shown that kidney stones are a complication of gout because extra uric acid can collect in the urinary tract and crystallise into stones.

404.

Which of the following statements is true about the flow of electrons in an electric circuit?(a) Electrons always flow from lower to higher potential(b) Electrons always flow from higher to lower potential(c) Electrons flow from lower to higher potential, except through power sources(d) Electrons flow from higher to lower potential, except through power sources

Answer»

Answer is : (c) Electrons flow from lower to higher potential, except through power sources

The free electrons experiences electrostatic force in the direction opposite to the direction of electric fired being is of negative charge. The electric field always directed from higher potential to lower potential. Therefore electrostatic force and negative charge or electrons always flows from lower to higher potential until the potantials become equal.

405.

A metallic sphere is kept in between two oppositely charged plates. The most appropriate representation of the field lines is -

Answer»

Correct option  (B)

Explanation:

Electric field lines should be perpendicular to surface of metal.

406.

A planet is orbiting the sun in an elliptical orbit. Let U denote the potential energy and K denote the kinetic energy of the planet at an arbitrary point on the orbit. Choose the correct statement.(a) K < |U| always(b) K > |U| always(c) K = |U| always(d) K = |U| for two positions of the planet in the orbit

Answer»

Answer is : (a) K < |U| always

For a satellite or planet, if total energy is E, then

kinetic energy, K = - E

and potential energy, U = 2E

where, E is negative.

So, K < |U|

407.

Scurvy is caused by the deficiency of(a) nicotinic acid(b) ascorbic acid(c) pantothenic acid(d) retinoic acid

Answer»

Answer is : (b) ascorbic acid

Scurvy is caused by the deficiency of vitamin-C (Ascorbic acid) in the body. It can lead to anaemia, debility, exhaustion, spontaneous bleeding, pain in the limbs and especially the legs, swelling in some parts of the body and sometimes ulceration of the gums and loss of teeth.

408.

A positive charge q is placed at the center of a neutral hollow cylindrical conducting shell with its cross section as shown in the figure below.Which one of the following figures correctly indicates the induced charge distribution on the conductor (ignore edge effects).

Answer»

Correct option  (A)

Option 'A' is correct option. According charge conservation & Gauss's law.

409.

Mendel showed that unit factors, now called alleles, exhibit a dominant/recessive relationship. In a monohybrid cross, the .......... trait disappears in the first filial generation.(a) dominant(b) codominant(c) recessive(d) semi-dominant

Answer»

Answer is : (c) recessive

Gregor Mendel studied inheritance of traits in pea plants. In a monohybrid cross, the recessive trait disappears in the first filial generation. The traits that were visible in the F1-generation are referred to as dominant traits. This happens because recessive allele does not express itself in the presence of dominant allele.

410.

In evolutionary terms, an Indian school boy is more closely related to(a) an Indian frog(b) an American snake(c) a Chinese horse(d) an African shark

Answer»

Answer is : (c) a Chinese horse

In evolutionary terms, an Indian school boy is more closely related to Chinese horse. Human and horse irrespective of their country are more generally similar in their chromosomal management, than to rest of the species mentioned here. This is because human and horse both belong to class Mammalia. Other options like frog, snake and shark belong to class– Amphibia, Reptilia and Chondrichthyes.

411.

The correct order of electron affinities of N, O, S and Cl is (a) N &lt; O &lt; S &lt; Cl (b) O &lt; N &lt; Cl &lt; S (c) O ≈ Cl &lt; N ≈ S (d) O &lt; S &lt; Cl &lt; N

Answer»

Correct option is (a) N < O < S < Cl

Electron affinities of II period element are less negative as compared to corresponding III period element. This is because of small size of II period elements. Also, nitrogen has the least electron affinity due to stable half-filled configuration. Thus, the correct order of electron affinity is N < O < S < Cl.

412.

Let N be the least positive integer such that whenever a non-zero digit c is written after the last digit of N, the resulting number is divisible by c. Then the sum of the digits of N is:-(a) 9(b) 18(c) 27(d) 36

Answer»

The correct option is (a) 9.

N is least positive integer and when a digit c is written after last digit of N, the resulting number is divisible by c.

⇒  So, (N)c / c​

Least positive integer (N) which is divisible by digit c i.e. (1−9)

So possible number is

⇒ (9 × 8 × 7 × 5)c​ / c

Number, 9 × 8 × 7 × 5 is divisible by all the digits from 1 to 9

⇒  So, Number is 72 × 35 = 2520 = N

⇒  Sum of the digits of number N = 2 + 5 + 2 + 0 = 9

413.

 Let x1, x2,....., x11 be 11 distinct positive integers. If we replace the largest of these integers by the median of the other 10 integers, then (a)  the median remains the same(b)  the mean increases(c) the median decreases(d) the mean remains the same

Answer»

The correct option is (C).

Let x1​,x2​,x3​,x4​,...........x11​ are distinct positive integers

Suppose the increasing order of the numbers are

⇒  x1​,x2​,x3​,x4​,x5​,x6​,x7​,x8​,x9​,x10​,x11

x11​ is largest number and the median is x6​.

Now, the median of first 10 numbers = (x5​ + x6)/2​​

⇒  Let a =  (x5​ + x6)/2

Now, we have to replace largest number x11​ by the median of first 10 numbers i.e. a.

So, new increasing order will be

⇒  x1​, x2​, x3​, x4​, x5​, a , x6​, x7​, x8​, x9​, x10

And new median will be a i.e. (x5​ + x6)/2

Which is lesser than the median of first eleven number x6​

⇒  So, median decreases.

414.

Let N be the least positive integer such that whenever a non-zero digit c is written after the last digit of N, the resulting number is divisible by c. The sum of the digits of N is(a) 9(b) 18(c) 27(d) 36

Answer»

Answer is : (a) 9

As N be the least positive integer and when a non-zero digit C is written after the last digit of N, the resulting number is divisible by C.

So, 10N + C is divisible by C.

∴10 N must be divisible by C.

Now, the least integer (N) which is divisible by digit ‘C’ i.e. (1 to 9) must be L.C.M of {1, 3, 4, 6, 7, 9}.

= L.C.M of {4, 7, 9} = 252 = N

and sum of digits of number ‘N’ is 2+5+2 = 9

415.

A two-digit number \(\overline{ab}\) is called almost prime if one obtains a two-digit prime number by changing at most one of its digits a and b. (For example, 18 is an almost prime number because 13 is a prime number). Then the number of almost prime two-digit numbers is(a) 56(b) 75(c) 87(d) 90

Answer»

Answer is : (d) 90

Since in the group of first 10 two digit number 10-19, has atleast 1 prime number similarly in other groups of 10 two digits numbers

20-29, 30-39, 40-49, 50-59, 60-69, 70-79, 80-89 and 90-99 have almost 1 prime numbers.

So, the number of almost prime two-digit number is 90.

416.

Let x, y, z be non-zero real numbers such that x/y+y/z+z/x=7 and y/x+z/y+x/z=9, then x3/y3+y3/z3+z3/x3-3 is equal to (A) 152 (B) 153 (D) 154 (D) 155

Answer»

Correct option(c)

Explanation:

a3 + b3 + c3-3abc = [a + b + c] [(a + b + c)2 - 3(ab + bc + ca)] 

= [7] [(7)2 - 3(9)] = 7(49 - 27) = 7 × 22 = 154

417.

The word KVPY is written on a board and viewed through different lenses such that board is at a distance beyond the focal length of the lens.Ignoring magnification effects, consider the following statements:(I) First image has been viewed from the planar side of a plano-convex lens and second image from the convex side of a plano-convex lens.(II) First image has been viewed from the concave side of a plano-concave lens and second image from the convex side of a plano-convex lens.(III) First image has been viewed from the concave side of a plano-concave lens and second image from the planar side of a plano-convex lens.(IV) First image has been viewed from the planar side of a plano-concave lens and second image from the convex side of a plano-convex lens.Which of the above statements are correct?(a) All statements are correct(b) Only statement III is correct(c) Only statement IV is correct(d) Only statements II, III and IV are correct

Answer»

(d) Only statements II, III and IV are correct

A plano-concave lens is a diverging lens and a plano-convex lens is a converging lens.

Image formed by a plano-concave lens is always erect and virtual.

Image formed by a plano-convex lens is real and inverted when object is placed at a distance larger than focal length of lens. Plano-convex lens is a converging lens. Hence, image formed by a plano-convex lens is inverted.

So, all statements are correct.

418.

In Drosophila melanogaster males, homologous chromosomes pair and segregate during meiosis but crossing over does not occur. At which stage of meiosis does segregation of 2 alleles of a gene take place in their individuals?(a) Zygotene(b) Diakinesis(c) Anaphase-I(d) Anaphase-II

Answer»

Answer is : (c) Anaphase-I

During anaphase-I, no crossing over leads to segregation of alleles. Anaphase-I begins when the two chromosomes of each bivalent (tetrad) separate and start moving toward opposite poles of the cell as a result of the action of the spindle, but their centromeres are still attached.

419.

Unlike humans, dogs cannot perspire to get rid to excess metabolic heat. They lose metabolic heat by:(A) Panting (B) running in windy conditions(C) taking a bath (D) rolling in the mud

Answer»

Unlike humans, dogs cannot perspire to get rid to excess metabolic heat. They lose metabolic heat by Panting.

420.

An individual has O blood group if his/her blood sample.(A) Clumps only when antiserum A is added(B) Clumps only when antiserum B is added(C) Clumps when both antiserum A and antiserum B are added(D) Does not clump when either antiserum A or antiserum B is added

Answer»

(D) Does not clump when either antiserum A or antiserum B is added

421.

‘On the Origin of Species, by Means of Natural Selection’ was written by(a) Hugo de Vries(b) Charles Dickens(c) Charles Darwin(d) Alfred Russell Wallace

Answer»

Answer is : (c) Charles Darwin

‘On the Origin of Species, by Means of Natural Selection’ or ‘The Preservation of Favoured Races in the Struggle for Life’, published on 24 November 1859 is a work of scientific literature by Charles Darwin which is considered to be the foundation of evolutionary biology.

422.

Haemodialysis is a treatment option for patients with malfunctions of :(A) Kidney (B) Heart (C) Liver (D) Lungs

Answer»

Haemodialysis is a treatment option for patients with malfunctions of Kidney.

423.

Haemodialysis is a treatment option for patients with malfunctions of(a) kidney(b) liver(c) heart(d) lungs

Answer»

Answer is : (a) kidney

Haemodialysis is a process of purifying the blood of a person whose kidneys are not working normally. It helps to filter waste, removes extra fluid and balances electrolytes (sodium, potassium, bicarbonate, chloride, calcium, magnesium and phosphate). During haemodialysis, blood is removed from the body and filtered through a man-made membrane called a dialyser, or artificial kidney and then the filtered blood is returned to the body.

424.

In warmer weather, curd from milk forms faster because(a) bacteria diffuse better in warmer milk(b) the rate of bacterial multiplication increases(c) lactogen is better dissolved(d) it is easier to separate protein from water

Answer»

Answer is : (b) the rate of bacterial multiplication increases

The rate of bacterial multiplication increases in warmer weather thereby forming curd from milk faster. This happens because Lactobacillus (i.e. bacteria that turns milk into curd) is more active in summers and develops more, which inturn accelerates the fermentation process.

425.

An individual has ‘O’ blood group if his/her blood sample(a) clumps only when antiserum A is added(b) clumps only when antiserum B is added(c) clumps when both antiserum A and antiserum B are added(d) does not clump when either antiserum A or antiserum B is added

Answer»

Answer is : (d) does not clump when either antiserum A or antiserum B is added

An individual has ‘O’ blood group if his/her blood sample does not clump when either antiserum ‘A’ or antiserum ‘B’ is added. Antiserum is a blood serum containing antibodies against specific antigens. Clumping or Agglutination is the process that occurs if an antigen is mixed with its corresponding antibody. A person with ‘O’ blood group neither have ‘A’ nor ‘B’ antigens on his/her red blood cells, but both ‘a’ and ‘b’ antibodies in his/her plasma. Thus, they are also called as universal donor.

426.

There are exactly twelve Sundays in the period from January 1 to March 31 in a certain year. Then, the day corresponding to February 15 in that year is(a) Tuesday(b) Wednesday(c) Thursday(d) not possible to determine from the given data

Answer»

Answer is : (c) Thursday

There are 90 days from 1 January to 31 March (Non-leap year)

If year 13 leap year, then total number of days = 91(13 weeks)

But we have 12 Sunday

∴12 weeks

∴ Ist Jan will be Monday as there will be 90 days January 1 to 31 March.

∴ 15th February will be Thursday.

427.

Consider the set A of natural numbers n whose units digit is non-zero, such that if this units digit is erased, then the resulting number divides n. If K is the number of elements in the set A, then(a) K is infinite(b) K is infinite but K &gt; 100(c) 25 ≤ K ≤ 10(d) K &lt; 25

Answer»

Answer is : (d) K < 25

Let two digits number ab = 10a + b, b ≠ 0 if b is erased.

Then, the resulting number is a.

∴ ab is divisible by a if ab is multiple of c.

∴ Such number are 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 22, 24, 26, 28, 33, 36, 39, 44, 48, 55, 66, 77, 88, 99.

∴ Total number are 23.

Hence, K < 25

428.

The water potential (ψp) of pure water at standard temperature and atmospheric pressure is(a) 0(b) 0.5(c) 1.0(d) 2.0

Answer»

Answer is : (a) 0

Pure water at standard temperature and atmospheric pressure has a water potential of zero. As solute is added, its value becomes more negative. This causes water potential to decrease. Water potential is the measure of the potential energy in water. It is denoted by the Greek letter ψ (Psi) and is expressed in units of pressure (pressure is a form of energy) called Mega Pascals (MPa).

429.

Action potential in neurons is generated by a rapid influx of(a) chloride ions(b) potassium ions(c) calcium ions(d) sodium ions

Answer»

Answer is : (d) sodium ions

An action potential is generated by the rapid influx of Na+ ions followed by a slightly slower efflux of K+ ions. The action potential is the mechanism by which nerve cells communicate and conduct information and muscle cells are induced to contract.

430.

Which graph shows the expected relationship between enzyme activity and substrate concentration?

Answer»

Correct option is (b)

As the substrate concentration increases, the rate of reaction increases until a maximum, when saturation of all the enzymes active sites occurs. When this happens, the limiting factor is enzyme concentration. 

431.

The pH of 0.1 M aqueous solution of NaCl, CH3COONa and NH4Cl will follow the order :  (A) NaCl &lt; CH3COONa &lt; NH4Cl (B) NH4Cl &lt; NaCl &lt; CH3COONa  (C) NH4Cl &lt; CH3COONa &lt; NaCl (D) NaCl &lt; NH4Cl &lt; CH3COONa  

Answer»

Correct option (B) NH4Cl < NaCl < CH3COONa

Explanation:

Order of pH 

less than 7 pH = 7more than 7 
NH4Cl< NaCl< CH3COONa
Salt of strong Salt of strong Salt of strong
acid + weak baseacid + strong basebase + weak acid 

432.

Which of the following guards the opening of hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum? (a) Ileocaecal valve (b) Pyloric sphincter (c) Sphincter of Oddi (d) Semilunar valve

Answer»

Correct option is (c) Sphincter of Oddi

Sphincter of Oddi guards the opening of hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum. Hepatopancreatic duct brings secretion of liver as well as pancreas to the duodenum.

433.

Which one of the following organelles can synthesise some of its own proteins?(a) Lysosome(b) Golgi apparatus(c) Vacuole(d) Mitochondrion

Answer»

Answer is : (d) Mitochondrion

Mitochondria have their own DNA and ribosomes. Ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis. Therefore, mitochondria are capable of making their own protein. Mitochondria are also capable of synthesising their own genetic material.

434.

The secondary order of protein structure is (a) the sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain (b) the formation of peptide bonds between amino acids (c) the coiling of the polypeptide chain (d) the folding of the coiled polypeptide chain

Answer»

Correct option is (c) the coiling of the polypeptide chain

The structures adopted by polypeptides can be divided into four levels of organisation, i.e., the primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary structures. The secondary structure pertains to the coiling of the polypeptide chains into regular structure such as α-helices and β-pleated sheets.

435.

A line is drawn from the exterior of an animal cell to the centre of the nucleus, crossing through one mitochondrion. What is the minimum number of membrane bilayers that the line will cross ?(A)   4(B)   5(C)   8(D)  6 

Answer»

Correct option  (B)  5

Explanation:

There should be five membrane bilayer that line will cross

1 -Cell membrane

2 -Mitochondrial membrane

2 -Nucleus

436.

Immunosuppressive drugs like cyclosporin delay the rejection of graft post organ transplantation by (A)  inhibiting T cell infiltration(B)  killing B cells(C)  killing macrophages(D)  killing dendrite cells  

Answer»

Correct option  (A) inhibiting T cell infiltration

Explanation:

Immunosuppressive Drug inhibits T-cell infiltration  

437.

Which of the following are found in extreme saline conditions? (a) Archaebacteria (b) Eubacteria (c) Cyanobacteria (d) Mycobacteria

Answer»

Correct option is (a) Archaebacteria

Archaebacteria are the most primitive form of bacteria. These live in diverse habitat, e.g. extreme hot temperature, saline condition, variable pH, etc. Saline bacteria are called halophiles (e.g. Halobacterium, Halococcus).

438.

The species that exhibits the highest Rf value in a thin layer chromatogram using a non-polar solvent on a silica gel plate is

Answer»

Answer is : (a)

The most often used stationary phase gel and alumina are polar material. Consequently, the least polar compound will have the highest Rf value, as they will be least bounded to the stationary phase and moves quickly up the TLC plate.

Among the given compound, compound (a) is least polar, so its Rf value will be maximum.

439.

The species that exhibits the highest Rf value in a thin layer chromatogram using a nonpolar solvent on a silica gel plate is : 

Answer»

Correct option (A)

Explanation:

The most often used stationary phase silica gel and alumina are polar material. Consequently the least polar compound will have the highest Rf value. 

440.

The thermal stability of alkaline earth metal carbonates–MgCO3, CaCO3, SrCO3 and BaCO3, follows the order(A) BaCO3 &gt; SrCO3 &gt; CaCO3 &gt; MgCO3(B) CaCO3 &gt; SrCO3 &gt; BaCO3 &gt; MgCO3(C) MgCO3 &gt; CaCO3 &gt; SrCO3 &gt; BaCO3(D) SrCO3 &gt; CaCO3 &gt; MgCO3 &gt; BaCO3

Answer»

Correct option (A) BaCO3 > SrCO3 > CaCO3 > MgCO3

Explanation:

Thermal stability of polyvalent anion salt like CO32– increase down the group due to increase in ionic character

441.

Consider the following statements (X andY stand for two different elements):(I) 3265X and 3365Y are isotopes.(II) 4286X and 4285Y are isotopes.(III) 85174X and 88177Y have the same number of neutrons.(IV) 92235 X and 94235Yare isobars.Which of the above statements are correct?(a) Only statements II and IV are correct(b) Only statements I, II and IV are correct(c) Only statements II, III and IV are correct(d) All statements are correct

Answer»

Answer is : (c) Only statements II, III and IV are correct

For a nucleus, ZAX

Mass number, A = N + Z

where, N = number of neutrons and Z = number of protons.

In 3265X and 3365Y, number of protons are different. So, these are not isotopes.

In 4286X and 4285Y, number of protons are equal. So, these are isotopes.

In 85174X and 88177Y, number of neutrons are 174 - 85 = 89 and 177 - 88 = 89.

So, both have same number of neutrons.

In 92235 X and 94235Y, both have same mass number, so these are isobars.

442.

Antigen-angtibody reactions(A)  always result in precipitation of the complex(B)  depend only on covalent interactions.(C)  are irreversible.(D)  depend on ionic and hydrophobic interactions. 

Answer»

Correct option (D) depend on ionic and hydrophobic interactions. 

Explanation:

Antibody- antigen interaction is essentially Non-Covalent, Electrostatic interaction, Hydrogen Bonds, Vander walls forces and Hydrophobic interactions are all known to be involved depending on the interaction sites.

443.

Which of the following amino acids is not involved in gluconeogenesis?(a) Alanine(b) Lysine(c) Glutamate(d) Arginine

Answer»

Answer is : (b) Lysine

Lysine is not involved in gluconeogenesis. Gluconeogenesis is the biosynthesis of new glucose from certain non-carbohydrate carbon substrates like amino acids, etc. Out of the 20 amino acids, 18 are glucogenic (i.e. can be converted to glucose upon gluconeogenesis) while the remaining two amino acids, i.e. lysine and leucine are purely ketogenic (i.e. can be degraded into acetyl-Co-A).

444.

If a double stranded DNA has 15% cytosine, what is the % of adenine in the DNA? (A)  15%(B)  70%(C)  35%(D)  30%

Answer»

Correct option (C) 35%

Explanation:

Cytosine = 15%

According to chargaff principle 

A = T & G = C

A + T + G + C = 100

Thus A will be 35%

445.

Consider the following vision defects listed in Columns I and II and the corrective measures in Column III. Choose the correct combination.Columns IColumns IIColumns IIIP. Hypermetropia(i) Near-sightednessa. Convex lensQ. Myopia(ii) Far-sightednessb. Concave lens(a) P–ii–b(b) Q–i–b(c) P–i–a(d) Q–i–a

Answer»

Answer is : (b) Q–i–b

Hypermetropia is far sightedness. A vision condition in which nearby objects are blurry. It is corrected by using convex lens.

Myopia is near sightedness. A condition in which close objects appear clearly but far ones do not. It is corrected using concave lens.

446.

Let Xn = {1, 2, 3, ..., n} and let a subset A of Xn be chosen so that every pair of elements of A differ by at least 3. (For example, if n = 5, A can be ∅, {2} or {1,5} among others). When n = 10, let the probability that 1 ∈ A be p and let the probability that 2 ∈ A be q. Then -(A)   p &gt; q and p – q = 1/6(B)   p &lt; q and q – p = 1/6(C)  p &gt; q and p – q = 1/10(D)  p &lt; q and q – p =  1/10 

Answer»

Correct option  (C) p > q and p – q = 1/10 

Explanation:

when n = 10

Let Ar be no. of ways of selecting r numbers.

No. of selection of A is

= n (A0) + n(A1) + n (A2) + n(A3) + n(A4)

= 1 + 10 + (7 + 6 + 5 +…+ 1) + (4 + 3 + 2 + 1) + (3 + 2 + 1) + (2 + 1) + 1

= 11 + 7.8/2  + 10 + 6 + 3 + 1 + 1 = 60

N(p) = n(no. of ways 1 is selected) = 1 + 7 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 + 1 = 19

N(q) = n(no. of ways 2 is selected) = 1 + 6 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 13

So  p = 19/60    q  = 13/60

p-q = 1/10

447.

Let S = {1, 2, 3, ...., 40) and let A be a subset of S such that no two elements in A have their sum divisible by 5. What is the maximum number of elements possible in A?(a) 10(b) 13(c) 17(d) 20

Answer»

Answer is : (c) 17

We have, S = {1, 2, 3, 4, ..., 40}

A is subset of S whose sum of two element of A is not divisible by 5.

Possible set A = {1, 2, 5, 6, 7, 11, 12, 16, 17, 21, 22, 26, 27, 31, 32, 36, 37}

∴ Maximum number of elements in A is 17.

448.

Monochromatic light passes through a prism. Compared to that in air, inside the prism the light's(A)  speed and wavelength are different but frequency remains same.(B)  speed and frequency are different but wavelength remains same.(C)  wavelength and frequency are different, but speed remains same.(D)  speed, wavelength and frequency are all different. 

Answer»

Correct option (A) speed and wavelength are different but frequency remains same. 

Explanation:

On refraction of light, frequency remain unchanged. However speed and wavelength get change. 

449.

Which one of the following is detrimental to soil fertility ?(A)  Saprophytic bacteria(B)  Nitrosomes(C)  Nitrobacter(D)  Pseudomonas

Answer»

Correct option  (D) Pseudomonas

Explanation:

Pseudomonas denitrificans is involved in formation of elemental N2 from nitrogen compound (denitrification).

450.

Deficiency of which one of the following vitamins can cause impaired blood clotting ? (A)  Vitamin B(B)  Vitamin C(C)  Vitamin D(D)  Vitamin K

Answer»

Correct option  (D) Vitamin K

Explanation:

Vitamin K helps in synthesis of blood clotting factor in liver.