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51.

In respect to patient data in database, the most important factor is:1. Transferability2. Accessibility3. Security4. Relevance

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Security

Explanation:

  • In respect to patient data in database, the most important factor is security.
  • Data security is an essential part of the healthcare industry for protecting confidential patient information and complying with regulations like those mandated by HIPAA.
  • As such, better healthcare data security solutions are needed to help reduce the risks of malicious data attacks or technical failure.
52.

According to Maslow's Human Needs Hierarchy, the highest level of need is-1. physiological need2. safety and security3. belongingness and affection4. self actualization

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : self actualization

Explanation:
Maslow's hierarchy of needs is a motivational theory in psychology comprising a five-tier model of human needs, often depicted as hierarchical levels within a pyramid.

From the bottom of the hierarchy upwards, the needs are:

  1. Physiological (food and clothing)
  2. Safety (job security)
  3. Love and belonging needs (friendship)
  4. Esteem
  5. Self-actualization.
53.

According to the National Family and Health Survey-IV, couple violence for married women in India is-1. 28.8%2. 37.2%3. 35.2%4. 48.5%

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : 28.8%

Concept:-

  • According to the National Family and Health Survey-IV, couple violence for married women in India is 28.8%
  • The main objectives of the NFHS program have been to strengthen India’s demographic and health database by providing information that is both reliable and relied upon.

  • The National Family Health Survey (NFHS) in India was initiated in the early 1990s with the first NFHS being conducted in 1992-93.
  • Since then, India has completed many rounds -
    • NFHS-2 in 1998-99
    • NFHS-3 in 2005-06
    • NFHS-4 in 2015-16
    • NFHS-5 in 2019-20
  • All rounds of the survey were conducted under the stewardship of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare(MoHFW), Government of India, with the International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS), Mumbai, as the nodal agency and technical assistance provided by the United States Agency for International Development (USAID) through ICF Macro (now called ICF)1.
  • USAID has been the primary funder for the NFHS surveys, but in the two most recent surveys (NFHS-3 and NFHS-4), other development partners, such as DFID, the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation, UNICEF, UNFPA, and the MacArthur Foundation, as well as the Government of India, also supported the surveys in a major way.
  • It includes High blood pressure, Diabetes, Registration of death, and others.
54.

According to the Census of India, which year is known as the 'Year of the Big Divide'?1. 19812. 19513. 19474. 1921

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : 1921

Concept:-

  • The year 1921 is often referred to as the "Year of the Great Partition", the last period in which India's population declined drastically due to the effects of the famine.
  • After 1921, India's population growth remained steady.
  • The year 1921 is known as the demographic split because prior to this year, the population was not stable, sometimes it increased and sometimes decreased.
  • Before 1921 the scale of population growth was generally low. But after this year there has been a considerable and continuous increase in the population.
  • After that, it is growing rapidly. Hence the year 1921 is rightly called the Year of the Demographic Divide or the Great Divide.
55.

All vaccines are stored at the Primary Health Center in-1. Ice Lined Refrigerator2. Deep freezer3. Walk in cold room4. Cold box

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : Ice Lined Refrigerator
  • At the PHC (Primary Health Center) level, all vaccines are stored in the Ice Lined Refrigerator at a temperature of +2 0C to +8 0C for a period of 1 month.
  • Ice-lined refrigerators are designed for storing vaccines, blood bags, etc.
  • Ice Lined Refrigerator has a layer of ice packs.
  • They can maintain an optimum temperature of 2 °C to 8 °C even at 43 °C.
  • In Ice Lined Refrigerator administered measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine stored.
56.

Which of the following is the primary reason for conducting end-user testing?1. Identify user competencies2. Identify errors3. Determine on going education needs4. Determine volume capacity

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : Identify user competencies

Explanation:

  • User testing is a usability technique that helps you gain very valuable insights from your users regarding why and how they use your products.
  • The very preparation for the tests will help you to better understand who your users are and what they are trying to achieve with your product.
57.

When doing system analysis and gathering information, the first tool is often an:1. RFI2. RFP3. RFT4. RFQ

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : RFI

Explanation:

  • A Request for Information (RFI) is a standard business process used by customers to collect written information.
58.

Which of the following behaviouaral theraphy is effective in treating patient with OCD?1. Exposure and response prevention2. Aversion theraphy3. Psychodynamic4. Cognitive behavioural

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : Exposure and response prevention

Explanation

  • OCD is a disorder characterized by recurring, unwanted thoughts, ideas or sensations (obsessions) that make the patient feel driven to do something repetitively (compulsions).
  • Cognitive-behavioral therapy is the major treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorders.

Exposure therapy

  • Exposure therapy is based up on a behavioral principle called habituation.
  • Habituation is the process of diminishing of sensory and behavioral response over time when repeatedly exposed to a particular stimuli.
  • It focuses on allowing repeated exposure to a fearful stimuli.

Response prevention

  • Exposure therapy is always interconnected with response prevention.
  • Also known as ritual prevention.
  • Response prevention is based on operant conditioning theory of learning.
  • This theory is suggests that when a behavior is no longer rewarded, it will diminish.
59.

Major approaches in problem solving are:1. Inductive, deductive, initiative, synthetic2. Inductive, deductive, purposive, synthetic3. Inductive, deductive, analytic, synthetic4. Inductive, deductive, active, analytic

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Inductive, deductive, analytic, synthetic

Explanation

  • It is the method of arriving at decisions based on prior knowledge and reasoning.
  • It is a cognitive process directed at achieving a goal.

 Steps

  • Formation and appreciation of the problem.
  • Data collection.
  • Organization of data.
  • Drawing of conclusion.
  • Testing conclusion.

Inductive

  • Universal to particular

Inductive

  • Particular to universal

Analytic

  • Breaks a general truth into its constituent parts.

Synthetic

  • Making a reliable generalization about particular fact.
60.

Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by1. IgG2. IgE3. IgM4. IgA

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : IgE

Concept:

  • IgE mediates type I hypersensitivity.
  • It is also known as an immediate reaction.
  • It involves an exaggerated IgE immune response. The allergic response includes asthma, dermatitis, and rhinitis. The allergic response to foreign allergens includes anaphylaxis, urticaria, and drug allergies.
  • Type I hypersensitivity occurs as a response to antigen. The response includes two stages:
    • Sensitization
    • Effect
  • The sensitization stage is asymptomatic and leads to atopic immune response, that is effect stage,

Explanation:

Type IIgE
Type IIIgG and IgM
Type IIIIgG, IgM, and sometimes IgA
Type IVT-cell-mediated
61.

After experiencing a transient ischemic attack (TIA), a client is prescribed aspirin, 100 mg by mouth daily. The nurse should teach the client that his medication has been prescribed to:1. control headache2. Enhance immune response3. Prevent intracranial bleeding4. Decrease platelet aggregation

Answer»

"Correct Answer - Option 4 : Decrease platelet aggregation

CONCEPT:

  • A transient ischemic attack (TIA), often referred to as a ministroke,” occurs when part of the brain experiences a temporary lack of blood flow.
  • This causes stroke-like symptoms that usually resolve within 24 hours. 

 

EXPLANATION:

  • Aspirin slows the blood's clotting action by reducing the clumping of platelets. Platelets are cells that clump together and help to form blood clots. During a heart attack, blood clots form in an already-narrowed artery and block the flow of oxygen-rich blood to the heart muscle.
  • When taken during a heart attack, aspirin slows clotting and decreases the size of the forming blood clot. Taken daily, aspirin's anti-clotting action helps prevent a first or second heart attack.
  • Aspirin, which thins the blood and thereby prevents clots. Hence, the correct answer is aspirin decreases platelet aggregation.

"

62.

False sensory perception in the absence of real external stimuli is called:1. Illusion2. Hallucination3. Depersonalization4. Deja Vu

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Hallucination

Concept:

  • Hallucination refers to misperception in the absence of external stimuli
  • It is a common symptom of schizophrenia.
  • Example: An individual is able to hear voices that others can't.

Explanation:

  • There are five types of hallucinations:
    1. Auditory
    2. Visual
    3. Olfactory
    4. Tactile
    5. Gustatory
  • Auditory hallucinations are the common type of hallucination.

  • Illusion is the misperception of the presence of external stimuli.
  • For example, perceiving rope as a snake in the dark.

  • Depersonalization: An individual feels detached from body and thoughts.
  • Deja vu: It refers to the feeling that you have already experienced things but happening for the first time.
63.

Non-verbal communication involves:1. Asserting yourself2. Choosing words carefully and presenting them3. Skills needed for rapport building and decision making4. Conveying ones feelings through body language

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : Conveying ones feelings through body language

Explanation:

  • Nonverbal communication types include facial expressions, gestures, paralinguistics such as loudness or tone of voice, body language, proxemics or personal space, eye gaze, haptics (touch), appearance, and artifacts.
64.

Oxytocin is mainly involved in which of the following functions ?1. Motor skills2. Childbirth and lactation3. Growth and mental ability4. Regulation of blood pressure

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Childbirth and lactation

Concept:

  • Oxytocin is a hormone released from the posterior pituitary gland.
  • The main of oxytocin is involved in uterine contractions during childbirth and lactation after childbirth.
  • Other functions involve influence on the stress response, anxiety, and bonding.

Explanation:

  • Oxytocin is synthesized in hypothalamic magnocellular neurons and released from the posterior pituitary into the bloodstream.
  • Gq coupled G-protein Coupled Receptor (GPCR) is the oxytocin receptor.
  • The receptors' activation leads to the influx of calcium ions that lead to smooth contraction.
  • Therefore, it causes contraction of the smooth muscles of the uterus.
  • These contractions also reduce the bleeding.
  • Oxytocin also acts on myoepithelial cells in the breast, resulting in the contraction of muscles and ejection of the milk.
65.

The defence mechanism in which emotional conflicts are  expressed through motor, sensory, or somatic disability is identified as:1. Dissociation2. Psychosomatic3. Compensation4. Conversion

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : Conversion

Concept:

  • Conversion is a defense mechanism where an individual expresses conflicts in the physical disability.
  • Conversion includes neurological symptoms such as seizures.
  • It affects movements and senses.
  • The emotional conflict causes anxiety.
  • The defense mechanism acts to reduce anxiety by expressing the conflict in the form of physical pain.

Explanation:

  • Dissociation refers to the loss of connection between one's thoughts, memories, and emotions. The person experiences detachment that the individual is outside of the body.
  • Compensation refers to the defense mechanism of excelling in an area to cover the weak area of life.

  • Psychosomatic disorders refer to any physical symptom such as pain without any medical condition.
  • The difference between the conversion and psychosomatic is the involvement of the movement and sense.
66.

Which of the following techniques are example of nontherapeutic communication?1. Restating2. Giving advice3. Focusing4. Paraphrasing

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Giving advice

Explanation:

  • Non-therapeutic communication is the type of communication that involves the usage of some, actions and tones that make patients uncomfortable.
  •  It will increase the tension of the patient.
  • Worsen the overall mental and even physical wellbeing.

 Types

  • Overloading.
  • Value judgments.
  • Incongruence.
  • Underloading.
  • False reassurance.
  • Invalidation.
67.

In approaching a client during a period of great over activity it is essential to:1. Use a firm, warm, consistent approach2. Anticipate and physically control the client's hyperactivity3. Allow the client to choose the activities in which participate4. Let the client know the staff will not tolerate destructive behavior

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : Use a firm, warm, consistent approach

Concept:

  • In case of overactivity, use a firm, consistent and caring approach.
  • It is necessary to be assertive and consistent with the client to control the behavior.
  • A warm or caring approach gives a positive message and helps to modify the behavior.

Explanation:

  • The staff should not physically control the hyperactivity. Physical control is only used in case of violence or life-threatening situation.
  • In case allowing the client to choose the activity will lead to acceptance of negative behavior.
  • The staff members should make sure that they do not trigger the client.
68.

Nursing care that is based on Identifying and meeting the needs of a patient is called:1. Client oriented2. Goal oriented3. Hegar's sign4. Prioritization

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : Client oriented

Concept:

  • Client-oriented nursing care is based on the needs of the patient.
  • The client is involved in the decision-making process.
  • The care is provided according to the identified needs of the patient.
  • It is also called person-centered care.

Explanation:

  • Goal-oriented care is a form of patient-centered care. It involves four goals:
  1. Prevention of premature death or disability
  2. Maximization of current health-related quality of life
  3. Optimization of personal growth and development
  4. Improving the chances of a good death
  • Hegar sign refers to the softened lower uterine segment. It is a positive sign in pregnancy. It is not a definitive test of pregnancy.
  • Prioritization refers to prioritizing the needs of the patient.
69.

The most important component of nursing care plan for a client with organic brain deterioration would be:1. An extensive re-education program2. Details for protective and Supportive care3. The introduction of new leisure time activities4. Plans to involve the client in group therapy sessions

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : An extensive re-education program

Concept:

  • Organic brain deterioration refers to the group conditions with reduced or deteriorated neurologic functions.
  • It is known as organic brain syndrome.
  • It includes the following disorders:
    • Alzheimer's disorder
    • Parkinson disease
    • Creutzefeldt-Jakob disease
    • Hungtion's disease
    • Multiple sclerosis
    • Myasthenia gravis

Explanation:

  • The main aim of the nursing care plan is to maintain mental and psychological function.
  • The client will have the maximum functional ability with the modifications required with the deterioration.
  • Therefore, an extensive re-education program about disease conditions, modifications in behavior, and alterations in an environment is required.
70.

A patient with increased intracranial pressure is receiving mannitol. To evaluate the effectiveness of this drug, the nurse should assess the client for which of the following:1. Decreased pulse rate2. Increased temperature3. Increased urine output4. Increased pupillary reaction

Answer»

"Correct Answer - Option 4 : Increased pupillary reaction

CONCEPT: 

  • Intracranial pressure (ICP) is the pressure exerted by fluids such as cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) inside the skull and on the brain tissue.
  • ICP is measured in millimetres of mercury (mmHg) and at rest, is normally 7–15 mmHg for an adult. 

 

EXPLANATION:  

  • Mannitol exerts its ICP-lowering effects via two mechanisms; an immediate effect because of plasma expansion and a slightly delayed effect related to its osmotic action.
  • Together, these effects result in an increase in regional cerebral blood flow and compensatory cerebral vasoconstriction in brain regions.

Hence, the correct answer is Increased pupillary reaction.

"

71.

Function of erythropoietin?1. WBC synthesis2. RBC synthesis3. Platelet synthesis4. Plasma synthesis

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : RBC synthesis

Explanation:

  • Erythropoietin (EPO) is produced by the kidney and used to make red blood cells.
  • Erythropoetin-stimulating agents are used often for people with long-term kidney disease and anemia.
  • Erythropoietin (EPO) is a hormone produced primarily by the kidneys, with small amounts made by the liver.
  • EPO plays a key role in the production of red blood cells (RBCs), which carry oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body. 
72.

The primary cause of abdominal ascites in a patient with Cirrhosis of the liver is:1. An increased vasopressin level2. An increased serum sodium level3. A decreased serum aldosterone level4. A increased serum albumin level

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : An increased serum sodium level

CONCEPT:

  • Cirrhosis is a condition in which your liver is scarred and permanently damaged.
  • Scar tissue replaces healthy liver tissue and prevents your liver from working normally. As cirrhosis gets worse, your liver begins to fail. 
  • Accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity is called ascites

 

EXPLANATION: 

  • Too much sodium can make your body hold on to extra fluid. This fluid can pool in your belly, chest, and legs.
  • Eating foods with less sodium can help control ascites.

Hence, the correct answer is an increased serum sodium level.

73.

Creatinine kinase raise in MI within1. 12-14 hrs2. 4-6 hrs3. 6-21 hrs4. 10-14 hrs

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : 4-6 hrs

CONCEPT:

  • Myocardial infarction is a serious medical emergency that occurs due to the blockage of one of the arteries which are supplying blood to the heart.
  • A myocardial infarction occurs when there is cell death, this can be estimated by measuring by a blood test for biomarkers.
  • Commonly used blood tests include troponin and less often creatine kinase MB.

 

EXPLANATION:

  • Creatine kinase (CK), formerly known as creatine phosphokinase, is an intracellular enzyme present in the greatest amount in skeletal muscle, myocardium, and brain; a smaller amount occurs in visceral tissues. 
  • Following the onset of symptoms of Myocardial infarction CK and CK-MB increase in the serum within 3-6 hours. 
74.

Long term use of frusemide (Lasix) cause following side effect ?1. Hyperkalemia2. Hyponatremia3. Urine specific gravity decreased4. Metabolic acidosis

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Hyponatremia

CONCEPT:

  • Furosemide belongs to a group of medicines called diuretics.
  • Lasix Injection is used in the treatment of hypertensive emergency, edema.  

EXPLANATION:

  • Lasix (furosemide) is a loop diuretic (water pill) that prevents your body from absorbing too much salt. This allows the salt to instead be passed in your urine.
  • Long-term use of Lasix can cause Hyponatremia, a condition where sodium levels in the blood are abnormally low. 

  • Hyperkalemia is an elevated level of potassium (K⁺) in the blood.
  • Urine-specific gravity is a measure of urine concentration.
  • Metabolic acidosis: A condition in which there is excess acid in the body fluids.
75.

Your are preparing to give potassium chloride 30 meq in 1000 ml of normal saline over 10 hours. The medication label reads 40 meq per 20 ml. how many milliliters of potassium chloride do you need to administer the correct dose ?1. 10 ml2. 15 ml3. 20 ml4. 50 ml

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : 15 ml

CONCEPT: 

Basic dosage calculation

\(Dose ={D\,{(Desired\,dose)} \over{H\, (Amount\, on\,hand)}}\times V\, (volume)\,\)

 

CALCULATION:

  • According to the question mentioned above;

D (desired dose) = 30 meq

H (amount in hand/ available dose) = 40 meq

V (volume)= 20 ml

 

\(Dose ={30 *20\over40 }\,\)

Dose = 15

Hence, the correct answer is 15ml.

76.

The nurse selects the route for administering medication according to:1. Hospital policy2. The prescriber’s order3. The type of medication ordered4. The client size and muscle mass

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : The prescriber’s order

Concept:

  • The prescriber's order gives the initial information for the prescribed medication.
  • It may vary according to hospital policy but the route is described by the prescriber's order.

Explanation:

  • The same medication can be given different routes. So, the route is mentioned with the medication's prescription.
  • The client's muscle mass is specifically important for intramuscular injection.
77.

Thiamine has been prescribed for an alcoholic patient. The rationale for administration of this medication is the prevention of: 1. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome2. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome3. Alcoholic dementia4. Huntington's disease

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

Concept:

About the Thiamine:

Another Name: Vitamin B1

Functions:

1. Helpful in the body's cells i.e. it changes carbohydrates into energy.

2. Carbohydrates main work is to provide energy for the body (Majorly in the brain and nervous system).

3. Muscle contraction and conduction of nerve signals.

Important Point:

Vitamin B1 is used to treat low thiamine, diseases like beriberi, certain nerve diseases, and Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome (WKS).

Additional Information:

  • Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome: Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome (WKS) is a type of brain disorder caused by a lack of vitamin B-1, or thiamine.
  • Symptoms:  Confusion and loss of mental activity that can progress to coma and death. Loss of muscle coordination (ataxia) that can cause leg tremor.

 

  • Alcohol withdrawal syndrome: If someone drink alcohol heavily for a long period of time, it may have both mental and physical problems. This is called alcohol withdrawal
  • Symptoms: headaches, nausea, tremors, anxiety, hallucinations and seizures

 

  • Alcoholic dementia: It is a form of dementia related to the excessive drinking of alcohol. This affects memory, learning and other mental functions
  • Symptoms: Effect on brain cells, resulting in poor judgment, difficulty making decisions, and lack of insight

 

  • Huntington's disease: Huntington's disease is a progressive brain disorder caused by a single defective gene on chromosome 4

·        Symptoms: Involuntary jerking or writhing movements (chorea), Muscle problems, such as rigidity or muscle contracture (dystonia), Slow or abnormal eye movements, Impaired gait, posture and balance, Difficulty with speech or swallowing.

78.

Disposal of expired and cytotoxic drugs is by:1. Chemical treatment2. Municipal waste3. Separate landfill disposal4. Autoclaving

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : Chemical treatment

Explanation

  • The cytotoxic drugs are included in the genotoxic waste.
  • Genotoxic waste is highly dangerous to humans and to the bio-environment.
  • They are called genotoxic because toxic to the DNA.

 Hazards from cytotoxic waste.

  • Spontaneous abortion.
  • Malformation in children.
  • Ecological consequences like land, water, and air pollution.
  • Nausea, headache, dizziness.
  • Local irritations.

Method of disposal

  • Return to the supplier.
  • Incineration at 1200 degrees celcius.
  • Chemical degradation.
  • Encapsulation.
  • Inertization.
  • Alkaline hydrolysis.

Chemical degradation of cytotoxic drugs

  • It is the separation of chemical compounds into their basic units of lesser particles.
  • It also changes the chemical nature of the drug.

Types of Chemical degradation

  • Hydrolysis.
  • Oxidation.
  • Decarboxylation. 
  • Isomerization.
  • Polymerization.
79.

The visceral pleura is:1. The fluid around the lungs2. The thinnest portion of the peritoneum3. The membrane lining surface of the lungs4. The membrane lining the wall of the thoracic cavity

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : The membrane lining surface of the lungs

Concept

About the Pleural

Features: It is a serous membrane lined by mesothelium (flat epithelium)

Definition: It is a serous membrane that folds back on itself to form a two-layered membranous pleural sac.

The inner layer is called the visceral pleura and covers the lungs, blood vessels, nerves, and bronchi. There is no anatomical connection between the right and left pleural cavity.

Layers: there are two layers of pleural sac

1. Parietal pleura: it is the outer layer of parietal.

2. Visceral pleura: it is the inner layer of pleura. Also known as pulmonary pleura.

Note: Both layers are continuous with each other around the hilum of the lung.

Explanation:

The fluid around the lungs

Pleural effusion

The membrane lining surface of the lungs

Visceral pleura

The membrane lining the wall of the thoracic cavity

Pleural membrane

80.

The most relevant knowledge about oxygen administration to a patient with COPD includes:1. Oxygen at 1-2 L/min is given to maintain hypoxic stimulus for breathing2. Hypoxia stimulates the central chemoreceptors in the cortex that makes the patient breathe3. Oxygen is administered best using a non rebreathing mask4. Blood gases are monitored using a pulse oximeter

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : Oxygen at 1-2 L/min is given to maintain hypoxic stimulus for breathing

CONCEPT:

  • Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a chronic inflammatory lung disease that causes obstructed airflow from the lungs.
  • Symptoms include breathing difficulty, cough, mucus (sputum) production, and wheezing.
  • Oxygen therapy is a type of treatment used by some people with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It is sometimes called supplemental oxygen.

 

EXPLANATION:

  • COPD causes lung damage that can keep the lungs from being able to absorb enough oxygen. If the body does not have enough oxygen, it cannot function as well as it should.
  • Oxygen therapy delivers an extra supply of oxygen into the body that can help improve symptoms of COPD.
  • According to the studies, supplemental oxygen is used for at least 15hours/day and oxygen is delivered at a rate of 2litres/min.

Hence, the correct answer is Oxygen at 1-2 L/min is given to maintain hypoxic stimulus for breathing.

81.

Failure to properly dispose of the excreta spreads the disease by the following methods, except for which one?1. Contaminated Water2. Contaminated Foods3. Contaminated Soil4. Contaminated Air

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : Contaminated Air

Concept:-

  • Humans dispose of the excreta and lack adequate personal and household hygiene participates in the transmission of many infectious diseases including- cholera, typhoid, hepatitis, polio, cryptosporidiosis, ascariasis, and schistosomiasis.
  • The minimum level of proper excretory disposal and personal and household sanitation is essential to protect public health.

  • Handling functions as a primary barrier to safe fecal disposal and prevention of escaping pathogens entering the environment.
  • Once pathogens are introduced into the environment, they can be transmitted either through the mouth (eg through drinking).
    contaminated water or eating contaminated vegetables/food) or skin (as in the case of hookworms and schistosomes) & Contaminated Soil.
82.

A sac is formed when a weak part of a blood vessel wall bulges out, what is it called?1. Atherosclerosis2. Aneurysm3. Anastomosis4. Arteriosclerosis

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Aneurysm

Explanation:

​Aneurysm

  • Aneurysm, widening of an artery that develops from weakness or destruction of the medial layer of the blood vessel. 
  • With the constant pressure of the circulating blood within the artery, the weakened part of the arterial wall becomes enlarged.
  • Enlargement leads ultimately to serious and even fatal complications from the compression of surrounding structures or from rupture and hemorrhage.
  • Aneurysms may occur in any part of the aorta or major arteries. 

  • Atherosclerosis, sometimes called "hardening of the arteries," occurs when fat, cholesterol and other substances build up in the walls of arteries.
83.

Which of the following non-government organizations has constructed and maintained “pay and use” toilets for temporary populations or places such as bus stands, markets, and parks?1. Saurabh International2. Sulabh International3. Surbhi International4. None of these

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Sulabh International

Concept:-

  • Sulabh International non-government organizations have constructed and maintained “pay and use” toilets for temporary populations or places such as bus stands, markets, and parks.
  • In Darbhanga, Bihar,​ Sulabh International launched the cheapest drinking water project 'Sulabh Jal'.
  • The price of the one-liter bottle will be 50 paise as per the 'Sulabh Jal' project.
  • The project converts contaminated pond and river water into safe drinking water.
  • Sulabh International introduced the concept of 'Sulabh Sauchalya' in India.
84.

Intrinsic factor of castle is secreted by:1. Mucus cells2. Chief cells3. Parietal cells4. B cells

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Parietal cells

Concept:

  • Intrinsic factor is secreted by parietal cells of gastric glands in the stomach.
  • It helps in better absorption of Vitamin B12 from the ileum in the small intestine.
  • Vitamin B12 is necessary for red blood cells maturation. Inadequate intrinsic factor leads to vitamin B12 deficiency.
  • Vitamin B12 leads to pernicious anaemia.

Explanation:

Cheif cellsSecretes pepsinogen
Mucous cellsSecretes alkaline mucus
B cellsReleases Y-shaped proteins called antibodies
85.

Eugenics me:1. Genetic preventive measures2. Improvement of genetic endowment3. Improvement of environment4. Genetic counselling

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Improvement of genetic endowment

Explanation

  • Eugenics is the beliefs and practices that focus to improve the genetic quality of the human population.
  • It was practiced in ancient times and examples state that the ancient Brazilian population kills babies born with physical disabilities.

 History and Development

  • Historic evidence reveals that it was performed in ancient Greece, Brazil, Sparta, and other civilizations.
  • The idea of the modern project of selective breeding was developed by Francis Galton.
  • He was inspired by Darwinism and its theory of natural selection.
  • Charles Darwin was Galton's half-cousin. 
  • Eugenics became an academic discipline in many universities.
  • Eugenics education society was established in 1907 and American eugenics society was established in 1921.

Types

  • Positive Eugenics: Measures to increase reproduction in families with desirable traits.
  • Negative Eugenics: Measures to limit reproduction in families with undesirable traits.
86.

Inhibin is secreted by:1. Corpus luteum2. Stroma3. Leydig cells4. Surface epithelium

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : Corpus luteum

Explanation

  • Inhibin is a gonadal hormone that has a negative role in the secretion of FSH from the pituitary.
  • The activin and Inhibin hypothesis was formulated in the late 1970s.

 Secretion

  • In females, it is secreted by the Corpus luteum, placenta, gonads and pituitary. 
  • In males, it is secreted by Sertoli cells in the testes. 

Action

  • Inhibits FSH production. The exact mechanism is unknown.
  • Regulates spermatogenesis.

  •  Elevated inhibin A suggests a fetus with down syndrome. 
  • Inhibin A is a marker in the diagnosis of ovarian cancer.
  • Positive test for Inhibin B in males suggestive of azoospermia.
87.

Consider the following statements-Assertion (A): Biochemical test to know the nutritional level is useful in the early detection of nutritional disease.Reason (R): The disease can be caught indirectly by laboratory tests.1. (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).2. (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.3. (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.4. (A) and (R) both are not correct.

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:-

  • The nutritional status of an individual reflects the extent to which their physiological needs of nutrients have been covered at a particular life stage.
  • Dietary assessment and nutritional status are traditionally measured by means of dietary intake data, such as 24-h dietary patterns.
  • Biochemicals provide a more proximal measure of nutrient status than dietary intake. So by, Generally speaking, a nutritional biomarker is a characteristic that can be objectively measured in different biological samples and can be used as an indicator of nutritional status with respect to the intake or metabolism of dietary constituents 
88.

On the basis of the Human Development Index (HDI) countries with high HDI are classified as-1. developing2. developed3. least developed4. underdeveloped

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : developed

Concept:-

  • An index was developed to assess the countries on the basis of “Human development” is known as The Human Development Index (HDI)
  • This index shows that a country is developed, is developing, or is underdeveloped.

  • It captures three major dimensions of human development that are access to knowledge, long and healthy life, and a proper standard of living.
  • HDI was developed by Pakistani economist Mahbub ul Haq.
  • The HDI report was first released in 1990.
  • This report is published every year.
    • Life expectancy- It denotes the number of years a person is to be alive. It is an estimate of the average age of members of a group.
    • Gross enrolment ratio for three levels of schooling. It is the ratio for three levels means enrolment ratio for primary school, secondary school and higher education beyond secondary school.
    • National Income- All goods and services produced in a year by a country are valued. The higher the national income, the better the growth of any economy or country. From the national income figures, it can be known how fast the growth of a country is increasing.
89.

Clinical information, such as order sets and patient education material, should be reviewed at least:1. Annually2. Monthly3. Biannually4. Biennially

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : Annually

Explanation:

  • Clinical information, such as order sets and patient education material, should be reviewed annually.
90.

Why in some Europe countries catgut suture material not used ?1. Transmit bovine disease2. Transmit HIV3. Transmit malaria4. Transmit HCV

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : Transmit bovine disease

CONCEPT:

  • Catgut suture is a type of surgical suture that is naturally degraded by the body's own proteolytic enzymes.
  • Catgut suture is made by twisting together strands of purified collagen taken from the serosal or submucosal layer of the small intestine of healthy ruminants (cattle, sheep, goats) or from beef tendon.

 

EXPLANATION:

  • Catgut is banned in Europe and Japan due to concerns that they could transmit bovine spongiform encephalopathy(mad-cow disease), although the herds from which gut is harvested are certified BSE- free.
  • Catgut has largely been replaced by synthetic absorbable polymers such as polyglactin, polyglytone, and poliglecaprone.