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Does Rolle’s theorem applicable if f(a) is not equal to f(b)?(a) Yes(b) No(c) Under particular conditions(d) May beThe question was asked at a job interview.This question is from Mean Value Theorem in section Continuity and Differentiability of Mathematics – Class 12

Answer» CORRECT ANSWER is (b) No

Easy explanation: According to Rolle’s theorem, if f : [a,b] → R is a function such that

i) f is continuous on [a,b]

ii) f is differentiable on (a,b)

III) f(a) = f(b) then there exists at LEAST one point c ∈ (a,b) such that f’(c) = 0


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