InterviewSolution
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InterviewSolution
This section includes InterviewSolutions, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.
| 1. |
Mitochondrial DNA is one of the best marker tools for population biologists and evolutionary biologists because _____________(a) Absence of genetic recombination in mt-DNA(b) Mitochondrial genes are specific to mt-DNA(c) It can be easily isolated(d) It undergoes spontaneous mutation |
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Answer» Correct answer is (a) Absence of genetic recombination in mt-DNA Explanation: Mitochondrial DNA is one of the best marker tools for population biologists and evolutionary biologists because of the absence of genetic recombination in mt-DNA. |
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| 2. |
Which are the cholesterol esters that enter cells through the receptor-mediated endocytosis of lipoproteins hydrolyzed? (A) Endoplasmin reticulum (B) Lysosomes (C) Plasma membrane receptor (D) Mitochondria |
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Answer» (B) Lysosomes |
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| 3. |
The sugar residue of glycogen are- |
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Answer» Glycogen is as an important energy reservoir; when energy is required by the body, glycogen in broken down to glucose, which then enters the glycolytic or pentose phosphate pathway or is released into the bloodstream. Glycogen is also an important form of glucose storage in fungi and bacteria. |
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| 4. |
The extra chromosomal, self-replicating, closed, double stranded and circular DNA molecule is generally termed as __________(a) Chromosome(b) Plasmid(c) Genomic DNA(d) Bacteriophage |
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Answer» The correct option is (b) Plasmid To explain I would say: Plasmid is an extra chromosomal, self-replicating, closed, double stranded and circular DNA molecule. |
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| 5. |
Recombinant DNA molecule is produced by ligating __________(a) Two DNA segments(b) Two m-RNA molecules(c) One m-RNA with one t-RNA(d) One m-RNA with DNA segment |
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Answer» The correct answer is (a) Two DNA segments The explanation is: For the construction of recombinant DNA molecule, two DNA segments are ligated. |
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| 6. |
Collection of microscopic DNA spots attached to the solid surface are __________(a) Ortholog(b) Synteny(c) Paralog(d) Microarray |
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Answer» Right answer is (d) Microarray Easy explanation: Genes of different species but possessing a clear sequence and functional relationship to each other are orthologs. Genes of same species, similarly related to each other are paralogs. Synteny is a conserved gene order. |
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| 7. |
Which of the following is the correct order of sequencing?(a) Cleaving, sequencing and ordering(b) Sequencing, ordering and cleaving(c) Ordering, cleaving and sequencing(d) Ordering, sequencing and cleaving |
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Answer» Right option is (a) Cleaving, sequencing and ordering To elaborate: First fragmenting of a peptide is done followed by sequencing and ordering the peptide fragments. |
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| 8. |
Cdk2/cyclinE functions in ____________(a) G2/M transition(b) G2(c) M(d) G1/S transition |
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Answer» The correct option is (d) G1/S transition Explanation: Cdk1/cyclinB functions in M phase Cdk2/cyclinA functions in S phase, G2 phase. |
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| 9. |
Which ratio is constant for DNA?(a) A + G / T + C(b) A + T / G + C(c) A + C / U + G(d) A + U / G + C |
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Answer» Right choice is (a) A + G / T + C Explanation: The molar concentration of purine bases A and G is equal to the molar concentration of pyrimidine bases T and C because one of each type makes up a base pair. Because of base pairing rules, A = T and G = C. The specific A – T and G – C content varies from species to species. But in any one species the ratio is constant. |
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| 10. |
Sequencing of genomic DNA is included in __________(a) Phenotypic function(b) Cellular function(c) Molecular function(d) Structural genomics |
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Answer» Correct answer is (d) Structural genomics For explanation I would say: Phenotypic function, it describes the effects of protein on an entire organism. Cellular function, it describes about the network of interactions engaged in by protein at cellular level. Molecular function, it describes the precise biochemical activity of a protein. |
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| 11. |
For a reaction if ∆G° is positive, then ____________(a) The products will be favored(b) The reactants will be favored(c) The concentration of the reactants and products will be equal(d) All of the reactant will be converted to products |
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Answer» The correct option is (b) The reactants will be favored To explain I would say: If ∆G° is negative, products are favored. |
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| 12. |
Oncogenes do not encode for ___________(a) Trans-membrane protein receptors(b) Growth factors(c) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase(d) Cytoplasmic G-proteins and protein kinases |
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Answer» The correct choice is (c) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase Easiest explanation: Oncogenes encode for RNA-dependent DNA polymerase. |
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| 13. |
Which of the following temperature best suits for the growth and multiplication of transformed cells?(a) 35°C(b) 36°C(c) 37°C(d) 30°C |
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Answer» Right option is (c) 37°C Explanation: (37-43) °C is the temperature range preferred for the growth and multiplication of transformed cells. |
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| 14. |
A set of overlapping DNA segments that together represent a consensus region of DNA is ____________(a) Expressed sequence tag(b) Sequence tagged site(c) Contig(d) YAC |
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Answer» Right choice is (c) Contig The best I can explain: Sequence tagged site is a short DNA sequence having single occurrence in genome. Expressed sequence tag is a short sub-sequence of a cDNA sequence. YAC is a linear DNA molecule. |
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| 15. |
∆G° is defined as the ____________(a) Residual energy present in the reactants at equilibrium(b) Residual energy present in the products at equilibrium(c) Difference in the residual energy of reactants and products at equilibrium(d) Energy required in converting one mole of reactants to one mole of products |
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Answer» The correct choice is (d) Energy required in converting one mole of reactants to one mole of products The best explanation: ∆G° is defined as the energy required in converting one mole of reactants to one mole of products. |
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| 16. |
Site directed mutagenesis facilitated research on __________(a) Carbohydrates(b) Proteins(c) Lipids(d) Fats |
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Answer» Correct answer is (b) Proteins For explanation: Site directed mutagenesis changes the amino acid sequence by altering DNA sequence of cloned gene. It facilitates research on proteins. |
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| 17. |
When visual stimulus reaches receptors in retina of eye, first process involving absorption of physical energy by receptors is?(a) Reception(b) Transduction(c) Coding(d) Adaptation |
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Answer» Correct option is (a) Reception The best explanation: Reception is the first process involved in the absorption of physical energy by receptors when visual stimulus reaches receptors in retina of eye. |
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| 18. |
The study of energy relationships and conversions in biological systems is called as ____________(a) Biophysics(b) Biotechnology(c) Bioenergetics(d) Microbiology |
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Answer» Correct choice is (c) Bioenergetics For explanation: Bioenergetics is the study of energy relationships and conversions in biological systems. |
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| 19. |
Water does a nucleophilic attack on phosphate monoester by producing ____________(a) Phosphorous chloride(b) Phosphorous sulfide(c) Inorganic phosphate(d) Organic phosphate |
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Answer» Right choice is (c) Inorganic phosphate The best I can explain: Inorganic phosphate is produced when a nucleophilic attack is done by water on phosphate monoester. |
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| 20. |
Migration of cancerous cells from the site of origin to other part of the body forming secondary tumors is called ___________(a) Diapedesis(b) Metastasis(c) Proliferation(d) Apoptosis |
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Answer» Correct answer is (b) Metastasis To explain: Metastasis can be defined as migration of cancerous cells from the site of origin to other part of the body forming secondary tumors. |
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| 21. |
Formation of one molecule of glucose from pyruvate requires ____________(a) 4 ATP, 2 GTP and 2 NADH(b) 3 ATP, 2 GTP and 2 NADH(c) 4 ATP, 1 GTP and 2 NADH(d) 2 ATP, 2 GTP and 2 NADH |
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Answer» Right answer is (a) 4 ATP, 2 GTP and 2 NADH Easiest explanation: Formation of one molecule of glucose from pyruvate requires 4 ATP, 2 GTP and 2 NADH. |
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| 22. |
The phosphate groups used during glycolysis are ____________(a) Organic(b) Inorganic(c) Neutral(d) None |
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Answer» Right option is (b) Inorganic The explanation is: Phosphorous can only be produced from inorganic phosphate. |
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| 23. |
What is the relationship between ∆G and ∆G^‘°?(a) ∆G = ∆G^‘° + RTln([products]/[reactants])(b) ∆G = ∆G^‘° – RTln([products]/[reactants])(c) ∆G = ∆G^‘° + RTln([reactants]/[products])(d) ∆G = ∆G^‘° – RTln([reactants]/[products]) |
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Answer» The correct answer is (a) ∆G = ∆G^‘° + RTln([products]/[reactants]) The best explanation: ∆G = ∆G^‘° + RTln([products]/[reactants] ) is the correct relation between ∆G and ∆G^‘°. |
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| 24. |
If ∆G^‘° of the reaction A → B is -40kJ/mol under standard conditions then the reaction ____________(a) Will never reach equilibrium(b) Will not occur spontaneously(c) Will proceed at a rapid rate(d) Will proceed from left to right spontaneously |
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Answer» The correct choice is (d) Will proceed from left to right spontaneously To explain I would say: If ∆G^‘° < 0, reaction proceeds from left to right that means products are favored. |
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| 25. |
Which of the following statements is false?(a) The reaction tends to go in the forward direction if ∆G is large and positive(b) The reaction tends to move in the backward direction if ∆G is large and negative(c) The system is at equilibrium if ∆G = 0(d) The reaction tends to move in the backward direction if ∆G is large and positive |
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Answer» Right choice is (d) The reaction tends to move in the backward direction if ∆G is large and positive For explanation I would say: The reaction tends to move in the backward direction if ∆G is large and negative. |
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| 26. |
The mechanism by which CBP activates transcription is?(a) CBP has DNA methyl transferase activity(b) CBP has histone acetyl transferase activity(c) CBP interacts with the basal transcription complex(d) CBP interacts with the basal transcription complex and has histone acetyl transferase activity |
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Answer» Right choice is (c) CBP interacts with the basal transcription complex To elaborate: CBP interacts with the basal transcription complex and activates transcription. |
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| 27. |
Which of the following enzyme catalyzes the first step of glycolysis?(a) Hexokinase(b) Pyruvate kinase(c) Glucokinase(d) Phosphofructokinase-1 |
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Answer» The correct answer is (a) Hexokinase Explanation: The first of glycolysis is irreversible under intracellular conditions and is catalyzed by hexokinase. |
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| 28. |
Which substrate is used in the last step of glycolysis?(a) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate(b) Pyruvate(c) Phosphoenolpyruvate(d) 1, 3-bisphosphoglycerate |
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Answer» Right choice is (c) Phosphoenolpyruvate The best explanation: The last step in glycolysis is the transfer of phosphoryl group from phosphoenolpyruvate to ADP catalyzed by pyruvate kinase. |
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| 29. |
The relationship between K^‘eq and ∆G^‘° is?(a) ∆G^‘° = RTlnK^‘eq(b) ∆G^‘° = -RTK^‘eq(c) ∆G^‘° = RK^‘eq(d) ∆G^‘° = -RK^‘eq |
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Answer» Right choice is (b) ∆G^‘° = -RTK^‘eq Easy explanation: If the system is in equilibrium ∆G° = 0 and ∆G^‘° = -RTK^‘eq is the correct relation between K^‘eq and ∆G^‘°. |
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| 30. |
Glycolysis converts ___________(a) Glucose into pyruvate(b) Glucose into phosphoenolpyruvate(c) Fructose into pyruvate(d) Fructose into phosphoenolpyruvate |
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Answer» Right answer is (a) Glucose into pyruvate The explanation: Glycolysis is a metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate. |
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| 31. |
What is the first step in the payoff phase of glycolysis?(a) Reduction of 1, 3-bisphosphoglycerate to glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate(b) Oxidation of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate to 1, 3-bisphosphoglycerate(c) Reversible conversion of dihydroxyacetone phosphate to glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate(d) Irreversible conversion of dihydroxyacetone phosphate to glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate |
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Answer» Right choice is (b) Oxidation of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate to 1, 3-bisphosphoglycerate The explanation is: Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase catalyzes the first step in the payoff phase, oxidation of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate to 1, 3-bisphosphoglycerate. |
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| 32. |
What is the general mechanism of an enzyme?(a) It acts by reducing the activation energy(b) It acts by increasing the activation energy(c) It acts by decreasing the pH(d) It acts by increasing the pH |
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Answer» Correct answer is (a) It acts by reducing the activation energy To elaborate: For the reaction to occur at a faster rate, activation energy should be less. |
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| 33. |
Hydrolysis of lactose yields ___________(a) D-galactose and D-glucose(b) D-glucose and D-glucose(c) D-galactose and D-fructose(d) D-fructose and D-glucose |
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Answer» The correct choice is (a) D-galactose and D-glucose The best I can explain: Hydrolysis of lactose yields D-galactose and D-glucose. |
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| 34. |
When one molecule of glucose is oxidized to two molecules of lactate during anaerobic glycolysis, which of the following statements is false?(a) Glyceraldehyde 3-P dehydrogenase reaction produces 2 ATP molecules(b) Lactate dehydrogenase reaction produces no ATP(c) Pyruvate kinase reaction produces 2 ATP molecules(d) Phosphofructokinase-1 reaction uses 1 ATP molecule |
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Answer» Correct choice is (a) Glyceraldehyde 3-P dehydrogenase reaction produces 2 ATP molecules To explain: When one molecule of glucose is oxidized to two molecules of lactate during anaerobic glycolysis, Glyceraldehyde 3-P dehydrogenase reaction does not produce 2 ATP molecules. |
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| 35. |
What is the main function of the pentose phosphate pathway?(a) Supply NADP^+(b) Supply NADH(c) Supply energy(d) Supply pentoses and NADPH |
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Answer» The correct choice is (d) Supply pentoses and NADPH Explanation: The main function of pentose phosphate pathway is to supply pentoses to NADPH. |
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| 36. |
Which is the major factor(s) determining whether glucose is oxidized by aerobic or anaerobic glycolysis?(a) Ca^+2(b) FADH2(c) NADH and the ATP/ADP ratio(d) Presence of high AMP |
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Answer» Right choice is (c) NADH and the ATP/ADP ratio The best I can explain: NADH and the ATP/ADP ratio are the major factors determining whether glucose is oxidized by aerobic or by anaerobic glycolysis. |
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| 37. |
Which one of the following statements is correct about the pentose phosphate pathway?(a) It generates 6 moles of CO2 for each mole of glucose consumed(b) It generates 38 mol of ATP per mole of glucose consumed(c) It is a reductive pathway that consumes NADH(d) Present in plants but not in animals |
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Answer» Right option is (a) It generates 6 moles of CO2 for each mole of glucose consumed The best I can explain: There is the continued production of NADPH and converting glucose 6-phosphate (in six cycles) to CO2. |
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| 38. |
Which of the following is not a factor determining the activity of an enzyme?(a) Association with regulatory protein(b) Sequestration(c) Allosteric regulation(d) Nucleotides |
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Answer» Correct answer is (d) Nucleotides The explanation is: Association with regulatory protein, sequestration, allosteric regulation and covalent modification are the factors determining the activity of an enzyme. |
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| 39. |
Which of the following is false about allosteric feedback inhibition?(a) Bacterial enzyme system is the first known example(b) Conversion of L-leucine to L-isoleucine(c) Threonine dehydratase is inhibited by isoleucine(d) If the isoleucine concentration decreases, the rate of threonine dehydration increases |
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Answer» The correct answer is (b) Conversion of L-leucine to L-isoleucine Easy explanation: The bacterial enzyme system that catalyses L-threonine to L-isoleucine are the first known example of allosteric feedback inhibition. |
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| 40. |
A coiled peptide chain held in place by hydrogen bonding between peptide bonds in the same chain is?(a) Primary structure(b) α-helix(c) β-pleated sheets(d) Tertiary structure |
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Answer» The correct answer is (b) α-helix For explanation: A coiled peptide chain held in place by hydrogen bonding between peptide bonds in the same chain is α helix. |
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| 41. |
Which of the following is not a feature of secondary immune respone to an antigen when compared to the first immune response to the same antigen?(a) Antibody is generated without T-cell help(b) Antibody is generated fast(c) Antibody produced has greater affinity for the antigen(d) Much antibody is produced |
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Answer» Right choice is (a) Antibody is generated without T-cell help To explain I would say: The features of the secondary immune response are: More antibodies are generated and the generation is fast. Antibody produced has a greater affinity for the antigen. |
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| 42. |
The peptide trigger for the self-incompatibility response that prevents self-pollination is _________(a) Salicylic acid(b) Jasmonates(c) Brassinosteroids(d) Plant peptide hormones |
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Answer» The correct option is (c) Brassinosteroids Explanation: Brassinosteroids prevents self-pollination. |
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| 43. |
Proto-oncogenes can be transformed to oncogenes by all of the following mechanisms except _____________(a) Elimination of their start signals for translation(b) During a viral infection cycle(c) Chromosomal rearrangements(d) Chemically induced mutagenesis |
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Answer» Correct option is (a) Elimination of their start signals for translation Easy explanation: Elimination of their start signals cannot promote cancer. |
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| 44. |
The polypeptide chains in chymotrypsin are linked by ___________(a) Hydrogen bonds(b) Ionic bonds(c) Disulfide bond(d) SH-SH bond |
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Answer» The correct option is (c) Disulfide bond To explain: The protein consists of three polypeptide chains linked by disulfide bonds. |
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| 45. |
Which of the following is a function of Macrophages?(a) Ingest large particles and cells by phagocytes(b) Produce and secrete antibodies(c) Interact with infected host cells through receptors on T-cell surface(d) Interact with macrophages and secrete cytokines |
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Answer» The correct answer is (a) Ingest large particles and cells by phagocytes Explanation: The remaining are the functions of B cells, TC and TH cells respectively. |
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| 46. |
Which of the following is a function of T lymphocytes?(a) Ingest large particles and cells by phagocytes(b) Produce and secrete antibodies(c) Interact with infected host cells through receptors on T-cell surface(d) Interact with macrophages and secrete cytokines |
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Answer» The correct choice is (c) Interact with infected host cells through receptors on T-cell surface Explanation: The remaining are the functions of macrophages, B cells and TC respectively. |
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| 47. |
Where do T-lymphocytes develop into fully competent but not activated T-cells?(a) The thymus gland(b) The lymph nodes(c) The thyroid gland(d) The bone marrow |
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Answer» The correct option is (a) The thymus gland To elaborate: T cells are called so because they mature in the thymus gland. |
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| 48. |
Which of the following presents antigenic peptide to T-cells in order to initiate an adaptive immune response?(a) Plasma cell(b) Dendrite cell(c) Neutrophil(d) Epithelial cell |
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Answer» The correct option is (a) Plasma cell The best explanation: Plasma cell is a fully differentiated B cell that produces antibody. |
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| 49. |
The following points about micro filaments are true except (A) They form cytoskeleton with micro tubules (B) They provide support and shape (C) They form intracellular conducting channels (D) They are involved in muscle cell contraction |
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Answer» (C) They form intracellular conducting channels |
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| 50. |
Which of the following is a true statement?(a) IgG is involved in primary immune response(b) IgM is involved in primary immune response(c) IgG is involved only in secondary immune response(d) IgG and IgM both are involved in primary immune response |
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Answer» Right answer is (d) IgG and IgM both are involved in primary immune response The explanation is: IgG and IgM are involved in primary immune response. |
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