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The correct answer is All of the above.

• The National Food Security Act :
  • The enactment of the National Food Security Act (NFSA) 2013 on July 5, 2013 marks a paradigm shift in the approach to food security from welfare to a rights-based approach. Hence, statement a is correct.
  • The central government is responsible for allocation of required foodgrains to States/UTs, transportation of foodgrains up to designated depots in each State/UT and providing central assistance to States/UTs for delivery of foodgrains from designated FCI godowns to the doorstep of the FPSs. Hence, statement b is correct.
  • The objective to provide for food and nutritional security in the human life cycle approach, by ensuring access to an adequate quantity of quality food at affordable prices to people to live a life with dignity.
  • In case of non-supply of entitled foodgrains or meals, the beneficiaries will receive food security allowance.
  • The Act also contains provisions for setting up of grievance redressal mechanism at the District and State levels.
  • NFSA covers up to 75% of the rural population and 50% of the urban population under Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY). Hence, statement c is correct.

• Salient Features of the NFSA​ :
  • All Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) or the poorest of the poor group, a priority group to receive 7 kg of subsidised foodgrains per person per month ie. 35 kg of foodgrain per family per month.
  • General households will be entitled to at least 3 kg/person/month.
  • Pregnant women and lactating mothers will be entitled to meals and maternity benefits of not less than Rs 6000. It is however restricted to two children only.
  • The eldest women of the household of age 18 years or above will be the head of the household for the purpose of issuing ration cards.
  • All beneficiaries will have to pay Rs 3/kg for rice, Rs 2/kg for wheat, Re 1/kg for coarse grains.
  • These prices can be revised after the first three years, up to the level of the minimum support price (assured price paid by the Centre to farmers at the time it buys grains from them).

The correct answer is Flexible exchange rate.

• Flexible exchange rate system is a method of regulating exchange rates based on the market mechanism that is demand and supply.
• In the flexible exchange rate system, a domestic currency is left free to float against a number of foreign currencies in the foreign exchange market and determine its own value.

Additional Information

• Fixed exchange rate system: In this, the exchange rate of the currency is fixed in front of a basket of import world currencies like the US Dollar, Japanese Yen, Euro etc.
• Managed Exchange Rate system: It is the hybrid or mixture of fixed and flexible exchange rate system.
• Dual Exchange Rate System: It is evolved by India. There is two exchange rate for Rupee one is official and another is market rate.

The correct answer is linseed.

• The government announces, Minimum Support Prices (MSP) for agricultural commodities each year in both the Crop seasons after taking into account the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). 
• In formulating the recommendations for MSP, CACP considers a number of things like the cost of production, input-output price parity, demand, and supply, etc. 
  MSP is a kind of insurance that the government provides to farmers in case of a bumper production of a crop and a fall in prices. 
  The government is bound to buy the crop at MSP from farmers if the price of the crop falls critically due to excessive supply. 
• As of 2020-21, CACP recommends MSPs of 23 commodities, which comprise 7 cereals (paddy, wheat, maize, sorghum, pearl millet, barley and ragi), 5 pulses (gram, tur, moong, urad, lentil), 7 oilseeds (groundnut, rapeseed-mustard, soyabean, sesamum, sunflower, safflower, nigerseed), and 4 commercial crops (copra, sugarcane, cotton and raw jute).  
• The government announces, Minimum Support Prices (MSP) for agricultural commodities each year in both the Crop seasons after taking into account the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). 
• CACP recommends MSP for twenty-two (22) crops and Fair & Remunerative Price (FRP) for sugarcane.

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The correct answer is a, b and c.

• This Policy proposes the revision and revamping of all aspects of the education structure, including its regulation and governance, to create a new system that is aligned with the aspirational goals of 21st century education, including SDG 4, while building upon India’s traditions and value systems.
• In the new 5+3+3+4 structure, a strong base of Early Childhood Care and Education (ECCE) from age 3 is also included, which is aimed at promoting better overall learning, development, and well-being.
• The special features of NEP 2020 includes:
  • ​​Ensuring Universal Access at All Levels of schooling from pre-primary school to Grade 12.
  • Establishing the National Mission on Foundational Literacy and Numeracy.
  • Emphasis on promoting multilingualism and Indian languages.
  • Setting up of State School Standards Authority (SSSA).
  • A separate Gender Inclusion fund and Special Education Zones for disadvantaged regions and groups.
  • Holistic Multidisciplinary Education with multiple entry/exit options.
  • Setting up of National Research Foundation (NRF).
  • Internationalization of Education.

• Previous Education policies :
  • National Education Policy, 1968
  • National Education Policy, 1986

• Education :
  • Concurrent subject
  • Article 21 (A) -  The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine.
  • Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 (RTE Act)

The correct answer is 2019-20.

• The Economic Survey 2019-20 introduced the concept of ‘Thalinomics’ in an attempt to relate economics to a plate of food.
• According to the survey, “Thalinomics: the economics of a plate of food in India” is an attempt to figure out how much a meal costs in India.

• The 2019-20 Economic Survey has found that veg thalis became 29% more affordable compared to 2006-07, while non-veg thalis became 18% more affordable.

Highlights of 2020-21 Economic Survey

• The Economic Survey has predicted a GDP growth of 11% for the upcoming financial year 2021-22.
• The survey also forecast a V-shaped recovery of the economy.
• The GDP is projected to contract by a record 7.7% in the current fiscal ending March 31, 2021.
• Earlier, the International Monetary Fund projected an impressive 11.5% growth rate for India in 2021, making the country the only major economy of the world to register double-digit growth this year amid the pandemic.

Extra Information:

• The annual Economic Survey is usually presented a day before the presentation of the annual budget. It serves as the official report of the economy.
• It was first presented in 1950-51 and submitted in the Lok Sabha along with the Union Budget until 1964.
• In 1964, the ministry started to release the survey a day before budget day.

The correct answer is B only.

• From 1950-51 up to 1997, there were only two deficits taken into account i.e. Revenue and budgetary Deficits. Hence statement A is correct.
• The Sukhmoy Chakravarty Committee recommended the introduction of the FIscal deficit. Hence statement B is incorrect.

• The Sukhmoy Chakravarthy Committee recommended giving up the conventional concept of deficit financing and start the calculation of fiscal deficit in the year 1997-98.
  • This committee to look into the working of the monetary system had pointed out an inherent weakness in budgetary deficit as a means of deficit financing.
  • The committee emphasized that real deficit should include not only budgetary deficit but also market borrowings and other liabilities.
  • The government accepted this recommendation and started calculation of the third type of deficit, known as fiscal deficit from 1997-98.

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only

• Development budgeting is done in order to monitor progress towards goals, help controlling spending and predict cash flow and profit. It is usually done by companies.
• Programme budgeting, developed by U.S. president Lyndon Johnson, is the budgeting system that, contrary to conventional budgeting, describes and gives the detailed costs of every activity or programme that is to be carried out with a given budget.
  • For example, Expected results in a proposed programme are described fully, along with its necessary resource, raw materials, equipment, and staff costs. The sum of all activities or programmes constitute the Programme Budget.
• Thus, when looking at a Programme Budget, one can easily find out what precisely will be carried out, at what cost and with what expected results in considerable detail.

   The correct answer is stagflation.

• Stagflation is a period of rising inflation but falling output and rising unemployment.
  • Stagflation is characterized by slow economic growth and relatively high unemployment.
  • Stagflation was first recognized during the 1970s, where many developed economies experienced rapid inflation and high unemployment as a result of an oil shock.

• Stagflation causes:
  • Stagflation occurs when the government or central banks expand the money supply at the same time they constrain.
  • It can also occur when a central bank's monetary policies create credit.
  • It is a combination of three undesirable economic situations:
    • High levels of inflation
    • High unemployment
    • Very slow growth

• Recession :
  • A recession is a period of temporary economic decline during which trade and industrial activity are reduced, generally identified by a fall in GDP in two successive quarters.
  • A recession just needs to be a contraction of the economy, featuring shrinking production and consumption, higher unemployment, and (sometimes) lower price levels.
  • Recessions are visible in industrial production, employment, real income, and wholesale retail trade.
• Disinflation :
  • Disinflation is a decrease in the rate of inflation.
  • A slowdown in the rate of increase of the general price level of goods and services in a nation's gross domestic product over time.
  • It is the opposite of reflation.
  • Disinflation occurs when the increase in the “consumer price level” slows down from the previous period when the prices were rising.
• Depression :
  • Economic depression is a sustained, long-term downturn in economic activity in one or more economies.
  • It is a more severe economic downturn than a recession.
  • which is a slowdown in economic activity over the course of a normal business cycle.
  • An economic depression is primarily caused by worsening consumer confidence that leads to a decrease in demand, eventually resulting in companies going out of business.
  • When consumers stop buying products and paying for services, companies need to make budget cuts, including employing fewer workers.

The correct answer is Saving-income ratio​.

• Level of savings:
  • ​Higher savings enable greater investment in capital stock.

• The Harrod Domar Model:
  • It is used in development economics to explain an economy's growth rate in terms of the level of saving and of capital.
  • The Harrod Domar Model suggests that the rate of economic growth depends on two things:
    • Level of Savings
    • Capital-Output Ratio
    • In simple form economic growth= \(Level of Savings \over Capital-Output Ratio\)
    • Level of savings:
      • ​Higher savings enable greater investment in capital stock.
    • The marginal efficiency of capital:
      • ​This refers to the productivity of investment, e.g. if machines costing $30 million increase output by $10 million.
      • The capital-output ratio is 3.
    • Depreciation:
      • ​Old capital wearing out.
• The Harrod Domar Model introduced a concept known as the warranted growth rate.
• This is the growth rate at which all saving is absorbed into investment. (e.g. $100 of saving = $100 of investment).

• According to the Harrod–Domar model, there are three sets of growth:
  • Warranted growth 
  • Actual growth 
  • The natural rate of growth
• The warranted growth rate is the rate of growth at which the economy does not expand indefinitely.
• Actual growth is the real rate increase in a country's GDP per year.
• Natural growth is the growth an economy requires to maintain full employment. 

The correct answer is 15 percent of outstanding stocks.

• 15 percent of outstanding stocks is the proposed foreign portfolio investor (FPI) limits in corporate bonds as per Budget 2020.
• As per the recent notification of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), the limit for the investment of foreign portfolio investors (FPI) in corporate bonds is hiked to 15% of outstanding stock for FY 2020-21.
• FPIs can invest Rs 3.17 lakh crore in Indian corporate bonds, at present.
• The government plans to increase the investment limit of foreign portfolio investors (FPI) in corporate bonds from 9 percent to 15 percent, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman.

• Foreign portfolio investment or FPI is a form of investment wherein investors hold assets and securities outside their country.
• These investments could include stocks, bonds, exchange-traded funds (ETFs), or mutual funds.
• It is one way in which an investor can partake in a foreign economy. 

The correct answer is Haryana.

• Haryana is often called the “Food Mine” of the country.
  • About 80% of the population of the state is agriculture-dependent, directly or indirectly.
  • Haryana is self-sufficient in producing food grains and is also a major contributor of food grains in meeting the needs of other states of the country.
  • The world-famous Basmati Rice is produced here in abundance.
  • The major cereals produced in the state include wheat, rice, maize and bajra.

• Some facts about Haryana
  • The state of Haryana was carved out from Punjab in 1966.
  • The population density of Haryana is 577.
  • The sex ratio of Haryana is 877 (according to the 2011 census).
  • The literacy rate is 75.5%.
  • State bird- Black Francolin
  • State tree- Peepal
  • State flower- Lotus
  • State animal- Blackbuck

The correct answer is the Sugar factory.

The sugar factory falls under the secondary sector of economic activities.

• The secondary sector includes secondary processing of raw materials, food manufacturing, textile manufacturing, and industry. 
• The Secondary sector of the economy includes those economic sectors that create a finished, usable product: manufacturing, construction and electricity, gas & water supply.

• Primary Sector Activities:-
  • Agriculture, forestry, animal husbandry, fishing, poultry farming, and mining.
• Secondary Sector Activities:-
  • Manufacturing and construction.
• Tertiary Sector Activities:-
  • Trade, transport, communication, banking, education, health, tourism, services, insurance, etc.

The correct answer is 1 and 3.

• Trade-Related Investment Measures provide quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign investors are prohibited. Hence statement  1 is correct.
• TRIMS agreement applies only to investment measures related to trade in goods and not in services and it is mentioned in Article 1 of the TRIMS agreement,  hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• As per the TRIMs Agreement, members are required to notify the WTO Council for Trade in Goods of their existing TRIMs that are inconsistent with the agreement.
• TRIMs are rules that restrict the preference of domestic firms and thereby enable international firms to operate more easily within foreign markets.
• They don’t regulate foreign investment as such, which is governed by FEMA and DIPP guidelines/regulations. Hence statement 3 is correct.

​

Features of TRIMS are-

• Offering equal rights to the foreign investor on par with domestic players
• Abolition of restrictions imposed on foreign goods.
• Permission grant to import raw material without restrictions.
• Abolition of restrictions on any area of investment

As per the provisions of Article. 5.1 of the TRIMs Agreement India had notified three trade-related investment measures which are as follows-

• 1. Local content (mixing) requirements in the production of News Print,
• 2. Dividend balancing requirement in the case of investment in 22 categories of consumer goods. 
• 3. Local content requirement in the production of Rifampicin and Penicillin – G

The correct answer is Secondary.

• Secondary activities add value to natural resources by transforming raw materials into valuable products.
• Secondary activities, therefore, are concerned with manufacturing, processing and construction (infrastructure) industries.
• People engaged in secondary activities are called blue-collar workers.
• Construction sector, manufacturing and utilities, e.g. electricity.

The correct answer is Farm equipment manufacturing.

• Activities associated with the secondary sector include metalworking and smelting, automobile production, textile production, chemical and engineering industries, aerospace manufacturing, energy utilities, engineering, breweries and bottlers, construction, and shipbuilding.

• Primary Sector Activities Agriculture, forestry, animal husbandry, fishing, poultry farming, and mining.
• Secondary Sector Activities Include manufacturing and construction.
• Tertiary Sector Activities Trade, transport, communication, banking, education, health, tourism, services, insurance, etc

The correct answer is ​Banking.

• Banking comes under the tertiary Indian economy sector.

• The tertiary sector of the economy is the third of the three economic sectors.
• The other ones are the secondary sector and the primary sector. This sector consists of the production of services instead of end products.
• The banking industry comes under the tertiary sector. 
• The banking system plays a significant role in the modern economic world.
• Banks collect the savings of the individuals and give them to the business people and manufacturers.
• Banks play an important role in the creation of new capital in a country and thus help to enhance the growth in the country. 

The correct answer is Trading.

Tertiary Sector:

• The sector that helps in the development of the Primary and Secondary sectors through providing services.
• Transport, communication, banking, storage, trade, etc. all come under the tertiary or service sector. 
• However, it also includes services that don’t help directly in producing goods. 
• E.g. education, healthcare, information technologies, network operators, etc.

Primary Sector

• Primary Sector: the sector that includes natural products like agricultural goods (rice, wheat, cotton, etc.) produced by exploiting the natural resources of the earth.
• Dairy, fishing, forestry and minerals, and ores are also natural products and therefore activities involved in attaining those products also fall under the primary sector.

Secondary Sector

• Secondary Sector: the sector that includes goods that are transformed from natural products through industrial activities or manufacturing.
• It includes artificial techniques which change the form of natural products.
• E.g.: making clothes using cotton fiber from the plant. It is also called the Industrial Sector.

The correct answer is Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Shetkari Sanman Yojana.

• Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Shetkari Sanman Yojana :
  • The State Government initiated the scheme in June 2017 to waive crop loan/agriculture loan of farmers who were unable to repay loans due to natural calamities.
  • Upto November 2018 an amount of 16,669.75 crores was credited to the loan account of 40.21 lakh eligible farmers.

• Mahatma Jotirao Phule Shetkari Karjmukti Yojna (MJPSKY) :
  • Mahatma Jotirao Phule Shetkari Karjmukti Yojna (MJPSKY) is a debt relief plan for farmers in Maharashtra State.
  • It was launched in December 2019 with an aim to provide assistance to the farmers by waiving all the loans they have taken from the banks. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.
  • Under this scheme, the maximum debt of Rs.2 lakhs per farmer will be waived.
  • MJPSKY is an initiative of the government to provide financial assistance to the farmers facing debt issues and to reduce a farmer’s suicide rate.

• Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar Krishi Swavalamban Yojana : 
  • Under the scheme, financial assistance is provided to the farmers belonging to SC and Nav-Buddha whose landholding is upto six-hectare and annual income is upto 1,50,000.
  • During 2017-18 and 2018-19, the amount utilized was 213.42 crore and 266.98 crores respectively.
• Unnat Sheti-Samruddha Shetkari Campaign :
  • The government of Maharashtra has initiated this campaign from Kharif 2017-18 with the objective of Doubling Farmers’ Income by the year 2022.

The correct answer is All of the above. 

• Tenancy reforms: 
  • In India, State governments have passed laws to protect the landowners and (superior or inferior) tenants, collectively these are called tenancy reform acts.
  • Reforms include:
    • Landowner’s right to lease.
    • Landowner’s right to Personal Cultivation with the ceiling, for example in Maharastra not more than 50% of the leased land.
    • Tenant’s right against the eviction & high rent demand.
    • Tenure security to tenant.
    • Tenant farmer has also provided rent security.

​ 

• Before independence, there were three major types of land tenure systems present in the country:
  • The Zamindari System:
    • By Lord Cornwallis in 1793
    • In West Bengal, Bihar, Odisha, UP, Andhra Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh.
  • The Mahalwari System:
    • By Lord William Bentick.
    • In Agra and Awadh and was later extended to Madhya Pradesh and Punjab.
  • The Ryotwari System:
    • By Sir Thomas Munro
    • First introduced in Tamil Nadu.
    • It was later extended to Maharashtra, Berar, East Punjab, Coorg, and Assam.
• The basic difference in these systems was regarding the mode of payment of land revenue.

• Model tenancy Act of 2019: 
  • To provide homeless families housing facilities in the urban area.
  • Especially for migrant workers in cities like Mumbai.

The correct answer is 284.83 million tonnes.

• India's foodgrain production is estimated to grow to 284.83 million tonnes during the crop year ending June 2018.
• 284.83 million tonnes is the all-time high-value foodgrain production in India.
• The foodgrain basket comprises rice, wheat, coarse cereals and pulses.
• The production of various foodgrains in the crop year 2017-18 is:
  • Wheat output has been pegged at a record 99.70 million tonnes.
  • Rice at 112.91 million tonnes.
  • Pulses at 25.23 million tonnes.
• The previous record foodgrain output was 275.11 million tonnes achieved in the 2016-17 crop year. 
• The rice output for 2017-18 has been upped by 1.39 million tonnes to record 112.91 million tonnes from its previous estimate.

• Production of coarse cereals has been revised upward by 2.12 million tonnes to record 46.99 million tonnes from its previous projection made for 2017-18.

The correct answer is 1 only.

• SEZ (Special Economic Zones) is a specifically delineated duty-free enclave, deemed to be foreign territory for trade operations, duties, and tariffs.  Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• They were introduced via India’s Special Economic Zone Act of 2005.
• The SEZ act came into effect in 2006.
• They are constituted by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
• SEZ units may be set up for the manufacture of goods and rendering of services. 
• Goods and services going into the SEZ area from Domestic Tariff Area (whole India except SEZ) shall be treated as exports and goods coming from the SEZ area into DTA shall be treated as imports. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
• The setting up of an SEZ opens up new avenues to attract private investment.

• The main objectives of the SEZ Act are:
  • generation of additional economic activity.
  • promotion of exports of goods and services.
  • promotion of investment from domestic and foreign sources.
  • creation of employment opportunities.
  • development of infrastructure facilities.

• The Baba Kalyani Committee was constituted in 2018 to look into the SEZ policy of India.  

The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2.

• While procurement is open-ended, it is not unlimited since our buffer stock is limited. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• Market price has no link with Minimum Support Prices and it can go below or above of MSP depends upon the demand of crop in the market, hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• The chief objectives of setting up MSP are:
  • Support farmers from distress sales
  • To procure food grains for public distribution
• Issue Price is the price at which the procured and buffer stock food grains are provided through the PDS.

•  The MSP is recommended by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices and announced by Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs.
•  MSP for sugarcane is known as Fair and Remunerative Prices.

• The Centre currently fixes MSPs for 23 crops and these are as follows -
  • 7 cereals – paddy, wheat, maize, bajra, jowar, ragi and barley
  • 5 pulses – chana, arhar/tur, urad, moong and masur.
  • 7 oilseeds – rapeseed-mustard, groundnut, soya bean, sunflower, sesamum, safflower and nigerseed.
  • 4 commercial crops – cotton, sugarcane, copra and raw jute.

The correct answer is Only 2.

• Any sector granted 'infrastructure status' by the Department of Economic Affairs under the Ministry of Finance. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• The Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises comprises of two departments-
  • Department of Heavy Industry
  • Department of Public Enterprises
    • This department allows Ratna Status and 
    • Conduct public enterprises survey
• So, statement 2 is correct.

​

Financial Ministry comprises of five departments-

• Department of Economic Affairs- This department prepares the budget, manages forex management, inflation, and price control.
• Department of Financial Services- It covers the functioning of banks, FIs, Insurance companies, and Pension System.
• Department of Expenditure- It implements recommendations of the Financial commission and Pays commission.
• Department of Revenue- CBDT and CBIC come under this department.
• Department of Investment and Public Asset Management- It sees the management of the central government including disinvestment in CPSEs.

The correct answer is All of the above.

• The National Mineral policy 2019 replaces the previous National Mineral Policy 2008. Hence statement 4 is correct.
• Features of National Mineral Policy 2019 are as follows-
  • It proposes to grant status 'industry' status to mining activity.
  • It makes effort to harmonize taxes, levies, and royalty.
  • It also provides for the maintenance of a database of mineral resources.
  • Proposes to encourage private investment in the mining industry.
  • Focuses on the use of coastal waterways and inland shipping for mineral transportation.
• Hence statements 1 2 and 3 are correct.

Impacts of National Mineral Policy 2019 shall be-

• Inland waterway will lead to the integration of 12 states that produce minerals.
• District Mineral Fund will help in the development of mining-affected districts and people.
• Commercialization of the mining industry and PPP models shall commence.
• After industry status, entrepreneurs shall get finance and investment and more FDI shall be attracted.

The correct answer is Adam Smith.

• Adam Smith laid down four principles to guide the taxing authority.
• Canon of Equality:
  • “The subjects of every State,” Smith asserted, “ought to contribute towards the support of the Government as nearly as possible in proportion to their respective abilities, that is, in proportion to the revenue which they respectively enjoy under the protection of the State. In the observance or neglect of this maxim consists of what is called the equality or inequality of taxation.”
  • Equality here does not mean that all tax-payers should pay an equal amount. Equality here means equality or justice. It means that the broadest shoulders must bear the heaviest burden.
• Canon of Certainty:
  • Adam Smith further said, “The tax which each individual has to pay ought to be certain and not arbitrary. The time of payment, the amount to be paid ought all to be clear and plain to the contributor and to every other person.”
  • The individual should know exactly what, when and how he is to pay a tax otherwise it will cause unnecessary suffering. Similarly, the State should also know how much it will receive from a tax.
• Canon of Convenience:
  • He wrote, “Every tax ought to be levied at the time or in the manner which it is most likely to be convenient to pay it.”
  • Obviously, there is no sense in fixing a time and method of payment which are not suitable.
  • Land revenue in India is realised after the harvest has been collected. This is the time when cultivators can conveniently pay.
• Canon of Economy:
  • Adam Smith held that “every tax ought to be so contrived as both to take out and keep out of the pockets of the people as little as possible over and above what it brings into the public treasury of the State.”
  • This means that the cost of collection should be as small as possible.

  • If the bulk of the tax is spent on its collection, it will take much out of the people’s pockets but bring very little into the State’s pocket. It is not a wise tax.

The correct option Narasimham Committee

• Raja Chelliah Committee was also formed post-1991 reform for reforms in tax administration (Direct tax).
• Dr. K Kasturirangan Committee was formed to draft a New Education Policy. India adopted the National Education Policy, 2020, the first since the National Policy on Education,1986.
• As part of the economic reforms post-1991, M. Narasimham headed the Committee on Banking Sector Reforms (1991) was formed to reform public sector dominated Indian Banking. Again, Narsimham-2 committee in 1998 was formed to review so far and recommend further recommendations.
• Uday Kotak Committee was a committee on Corporate Governance formed by SEBI in 2017.

The correct answer is Arvind Mehta.

• The Fifteenth Finance Commission :
  • It was constituted on 27 November 2017 against the backdrop of the abolition of the Planning Commission (as also of the distinction between Plan and non-Plan expenditure) and the introduction of the goods and services tax (GST).
  • N.K. Singh - Chairman of 15th Finance Commission of India
  • Arvind Mehta - Secretary.

• The Finance Commission is a Constitutionally mandated body that is at the center of fiscal federalism.
• Set up under Article 280 of the Constitution.
• Core responsibility :
  • It is to evaluate the state of finances of the Union and State Governments,
  • Recommend the sharing of taxes between them,
  • Lay down the principles determining the distribution of these taxes among States.
• Its working is characterized by extensive and intensive consultations with all levels of governments, thus strengthening the principle of cooperative federalism.
• Its recommendations are also geared towards improving the quality of public spending and promoting fiscal stability.
• The first Finance Commission was set up in 1951 and there have been fifteen so far.

The correct answer is B. D. Kalla.

• B. D. Kalla is the chairperson of Fourth Finance Commission of Rajasthan.

• The fourth State Finance Commission
  • ​The fourth State Finance Commission was constituted on 13th April 2011 under the Chairmanship of Shri B.D. Kalla.
  •  It also consisting of Shri Raj Pal Singh Shekhawat, Shri J.P. Chandelia as members and Dr P.L. Agarwal as Member Secretary.
  • The Commission gave its final report in September 2013 for the award period 2010 – 2015. 
• The fourth State Finance Commission recommendations
  • ​The Commission recommended transfer of 5 per cent of net own tax revenue (excluding entry tax and land revenue), 100 per cent of land revenue, 25 per cent of entry tax, 3 per cent of royalty on minerals, 2 per cent cess on excise duty and 10 per cent surcharge on stamp duty.
  • The State Government instead of devolving share from different taxes combined the amount which worked out to 7.182 per cent of States’ own tax revenue, apart from 3 per cent royalty on major and minor minerals excluding hydrocarbons.

​

• The fifth State Finance Commission
  • ​The Fifth State Finance Commission has been constituted by Governor order dated 29th May 2015 under the Chairmanship of Dr Jyoti Kiran and Shri S.C. Derashri as Member Secretary for the award period 2015 – 2020.
• The State Finance Commission
  • The 73rd and 74th amendment to the Constitution of India envisages transfer of certain functions to Panchayats and Urban Local Bodies.
  • Article 243 I and 243 Y provide for constitution of State Finance Commission every fifth year to review the financial position of rural and urban local bodies and make a recommendation to the Governor regarding devolution of financial resources from the State Government to the Panchayati Raj Institutions and Urban Local Bodies and distribution of the shares of these bodies on an efficient and equitable basis.
  • In pursuance of these provisions, the State Government has been constituting State Finance Commission every fifth year. 

• The first State Finance Commission was constituted on 23rd April 1994 under the Chairmanship of Shri K.K. Goel with three other members including the Member Secretary. 

The correct answer is Power.

• In Rajasthan Twelfth Five Year Plan the maximum allocation is proposed for Power (36.92%), followed by Social & Community Services (35.28%). Agriculture and Rural Development have also given priority with a 14.57 % allocation.

• The theme of the 12th Five-year plan was “Faster, Sustainable and More Inclusive Growth“. 
• The 12th Five-year plan was India’s last Five Year Plan. 
• Its duration is from 2012 to 2017, under the leadership of Manmohan Singh. 
• Its growth rate target was 8%.
• The Niti Aayog has replaced the Planning Commission which has launched a three-year action plan from 1 April 2017. 

The correct answer is To achieve faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth.

• The 12 Five Year Plan was launched for a period of 2012- 2017.
• The Aim of the 12th five-year plan was- Faster, Sustainable and More Inclusive Growth.
• The growth rate target for this plan was 8% per annum.
  • For Agriculture - 4%
  • For Industrial Sector - 7.6%
  • For the Service sector - 9%
  • Saving rate - 33.6% of GDP
  • Investment rate - 38.8%
• Poverty should be reduced by 10%
• In the non-agricultural sector 50 lakh, new jobs were to be created.
• The average educational age should increase to 7 years.
• The Infant Mortality Rate should be decreased to 25 and MMR to reduce by 1%.
• The total fertility rate should be decreased to 2.1.

The correct answer is Financial.

• IFSC is short for Indian Financial System Code.
• He represents the 11 digit character that you can usually see on your bank’s cheque leaves, or other bank sponsored material.
• This 11 character code helps identify the individual bank branches that participate in the various online money transfer options like NEFT and RTGS.

• RTGS stands for real-time Gross Settlement.
  • It can be defined as the continuous (real-time) settlement of funds individually on an order by order basis (without netting). 
  • Real-time means the processing of instructions at the time they are received rather than at some later time.
  • The gross settlement means the settlement of funds transfer instructions occurs individually (on an instruction by instruction basis).
  • Considering that the fund's settlement takes place in the books of the Reserve Bank of India, the payments are final and irrevocable.
  • The RTGS system is primarily meant for large value transactions. The minimum amount to be remitted through RTGS is Rs 2 lakh. The maximum limit is Rs 10 lakh per day.
• NEFT - National Electronic Funds Transfer.
  • It is a nation-wide payment system facilitating one-to-one funds transfer. Under this Scheme, individuals can electronically transfer funds from any bank branch to any individual having an account with any other bank branch in the country participating in the Scheme.
• The IMPS - Immediate Payment Service.
  • It helps you access your bank account and transfer funds instantly and securely.

The Correct Answer is "Employees' Provident Fund Organisation".

• Employees’ Provident Fund or EPF is a popular savings scheme that has been introduced by the EPFO under the supervision of the Government of India.
• The savings scheme is directed towards the salaried-class to facilitate their habit of saving money to build a substantial retirement corpus.
• The EPF scheme has catered to over 5 Crore individuals and is directed by three different Acts, namely, the Employees’ Provident Fund Scheme Act, 1952, the Employees’ Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme Act, 1976, and the Employees’ Pension Scheme Act, 1995.
• The fund is built with monetary contributions extended by employees and their employers each month.
• Both parties extend 12% of each of the employees’ monthly salary, as their share of contribution towards EPF.
• The fund thus built accrues a pre-fixed rate of interest that has been set by the Employees Provident Fund Organisation.

• The Employee Provident Fund is open for employees of both the Public and Private Sectors, which means all employees can apply to become a member of EPF India.
• Additionally, any organization that employs at least 20 individuals is deemed liable to extend the benefits of EPF to its employees.
• The employees’ provident fund scheme extends an array of benefits towards the EPF employee members. It inculcates a sense of financial stability and security in them.

1. Capital appreciation.
2. Corpus for Retirement.
3. Emergency Corpus.
4. Tax-saving.

The correct answer is 1 only

• Reducing government spending is tool to control inflation.  Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Reducing government tax collection. Will lead to money supply in the market and increase inflation.  Hence, statement 1 is correct
• Some protectionist measures government take to control inflation (such as banning the export of essential items such as pulses, cereals and oils to support the domestic consumption, encourage imports by lowering duties on import items etc.). Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

What is Inflation?

• Inflation refers to the rise in the prices of most goods and services of daily or common use, such as food, clothing, housing, recreation, transport, consumer staples, etc.
• Inflation measures the average price change in a basket of commodities and services over time.
• The opposite and rare fall in the price index of this basket of items is called ‘deflation’.
• Inflation is indicative of the decrease in the purchasing power of a unit of a country’s currency. This could ultimately lead to a deceleration in economic growth.
• However, a moderate level of inflation is required in the economy to ensure that production is promoted.

Who measures Inflation in India?

• Inflation is measured by a central government authority, which is in charge of adopting measures to ensure the smooth running of the economy. In India, the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation measures inflation.
• In India, inflation is primarily measured by two main indices — WPI (Wholesale Price Index) and CPI (Consumer Price Index) which measure wholesale and retail-level price changes, respectively. The CPI calculates the difference in the price of commodities and services such as food, medical care, education, electronics etc, which Indian consumers buy for use.

What are the main causes of Inflation?

• Some key reasons for Inflation:
  • High demand and low production or supply of multiple commodities create a demand-supply gap, which leads to a hike in prices.
  • Excess circulation of money leads to inflation as money loses its purchasing power.
  • With people having more money, they also tend to spend more, which causes increased demand.
  • Spurt in production prices of certain commodities also causes inflation as the price of the final product increases. This is called cost-push inflation.
  • Increase in the prices of goods and services is also a factor to consider as the involved labour also expects and demands more costs/wages to maintain their cost of living. This spirals to further increase in the prices of goods.

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

• Unemployment occurs when a person who is actively searching for employment is unable to find work.
• It is often used as a measure of the health of the economy. 
• Types of Unemployment
• Disguised Unemployment:
  • The phenomenon when more people are employed than actually needed. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Example: agricultural and the unorganized sectors of India.
• Seasonal Unemployment:
  • Unemployment occurs during certain seasons of the year.
  • Example: Agricultural labourers.
• Structural Unemployment:
  • Unemployment arising from the mismatch between the jobs and the skills of the available workers in the market. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Many people do not get jobs due to a lack of requisite skills and due to the poor educational level.
• Cyclical Unemployment:
  • It is the result of the business cycle. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
  • Unemployment rises during recessions and declines with economic growth. 
• ​Technological Unemployment:
  • It is the loss of jobs due to changes in technology.
• ​Frictional Unemployment:
  • Frictional Unemployment is also known as Search Unemployment. Hence statement 4 is not correct.
  • It refers to the time lag between the jobs when an individual is searching for a new job or is switching between the jobs.
• ​Vulnerable Employment:
  • This means people are working informally without proper job contracts.
  • These persons are deemed ‘unemployed’ since records of their work are never maintained.

The correct answer is Only 1 and 2.

• Unemployment is a stage where an individual is willing and searching for employment but fails to do so.
• The agriculture sector of India employs more than 50% of the total population and contributes around 16% to the GDP.

​

• Seasonal unemployment takes place when people are unemployed during a particular season or time of the year when labour demand is lesser than usual. The agriculture sector suffers from it because of the seasonal nature of crops and farming seasons. Hence 1 is correct.
• Disguised unemployment occurs when more people are employed than actually required. The marginal productivity of labour is zero. In agriculture more number of people work in the field, the same amount of work can be finished with a lesser workforce. Hence 2 is also correct.
• Frictional unemployment occurs when a person is unemployed by his choice and he is seeking a better job opportunity, it is good for the economy as the worker is looking for a job where he can be more productive. It is not found in the agriculture sector. 3 is incorrect.
• Therefore the correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

​

Other unemployments are-

• Structural Unemployment 
  • It refers to a situation that arises due to the change in the structure of an economy. For Example- when a labour-intensive economy turns into a capital intensive economy.
• Cyclical Unemployment-
  • Occurs due to deficiency ineffective demands from consumers which leads to falling in production and low demand for labour.

The Correct answer is Only B and C.

• Inflation increases the prices of food and services.
  • Inflation erodes the value of money, hence poor people have to spend more money to purchase the same amount of goods. Which ultimately increases poverty among the people.
  • Hence statement  A is incorrect.
• When the government goes for an increase in expenditure then the money in the market gets redistributed to the people.
  • The government implements this measure to increase the money supply in the market. 
  • This increases economic activities in the economy and ultimately leads to a reduction of poverty among people.
  • Hence statement  B is correct.
• Deficit financing is another way of increasing the money supply in the market so it also helps in the reduction of poverty.
  • Hence statement C is correct.
• Higher savings leads to higher capital formation.
  • This increases economic activities in the economy and ultimately leads to a reduction of poverty among people.
  • Hence statement D is incorrect.

The correct answer is Milk Production.

• Operation Flood was launched on 13 January 1970 and it was the world's largest dairy development program.
• It was a project of India's National Dairy Development Board (NDDB).
• India was transformed from being a milk-deficient nation to one of the largest milk-producing nations in the world.

​

• Within 30 years, it was able to double the milk available per person in India and made dairy farming India's largest self-sustainable rural employment generator.
•  It was launched to help farmers direct their own development and giving them control of the resources they create.
• The process has been called the white revolution as it was achieved by production by masses not just by mass production.

The correct answer is India’s dairy industry.

• Operation Flood launched in 1970.
• It was a project of India's National Dairy Development Board (NDDB).
• It was the world's biggest dairy development program.
• In 30 years, it doubled milk available per person, and made dairy farming India's largest self-sustainable rural employment generator.
• Verghese Kurien, the chairman and founder of Amul, was named the chairman of NDDB by the then Prime Minister of India Lal Bahadur Shastri.
  • He was known as the father of Operation flood.

The correct answer is 2 only.

• Dr Mehboob-ul-haq in 1990. developed the Human Development Index which measures development by well-being, rather than by income alone. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• Amartya Sen and Mehboob Ul Haq opinioned that development was not only about economic indicators but also about human development indicators like life expectancy, years of schooling, etc.
• HDI is part of the Human Development Report that is published by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
• Measured using 3 parameters

1. Health – Life expectancy at birth.
2. Education – expected years of schooling for school-age children and mean years of schooling in the adult population.
3. Income – Gross National Income (GNI) per capita (PPP)

• Top Performers – Norway, Switzerland, Ireland.
• Niger is at the bottom.
• India’s HDI value has marginally increased to 0.647. (Rank: 129)
• Among India’s neighbours, Sri Lanka (71) and China (85) are higher up the rank scale.

Indices that are part of the Human Development Report 

1. Human Development Index (HDI)
2. Inequality-adjusted Human Development Index (IHDI)
3. Gender Development Index (GDI)
4. Gender Inequality Index (GII)
5. Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI)

The correct answer is Both I and II.

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is vested with the responsibility of conducting monetary policy.
• The primary objective of monetary policy is to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth. Price stability is a necessary precondition to sustainable growth.
• There are several direct and indirect instruments that are used for implementing monetary policy-
  • Repo Rate
  • Reverse Repo Rate
  • Liquidity Adjustment Facility
  • Marginal Standing Facility
  • Corridor
  • Bank Rate
  • Cash Reserve Ratio
  • Statutory Liquidity Ratio
  • Open Market Operations
  • Market Stabilisation Scheme

• Reverse Repo Rate: 
  • The reverse repo rate is the short-term borrowing ​rate at which RBI borrows money from commercial banks. 
• Corridor: 
  • The Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) rate and reverse repo rate determine the corridor for the daily movement in the weighted average call money rate.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

• India has about 17 percent of the world’s population but it bears a frightening 20 percent of the global burden of diseases (GBD).
• GBD is an indicator used by experts to gauge the number of people dying prematurely due to a particular disease as well as the number of years spent by them in a state of ‘disability’ owing to the disease.
• In India, more than half of GBD is accounted for by communicable diseases such as diarrhea, malaria, and tuberculosis. Every year around five lakh children die of water-borne diseases.

•  Researches of the World Bank and WHO did a collaborative step to study the Global Burden of Disease Study.
• The GBD report warned that the LMICs (Low and Middle-Income Countries) health systems are not well equipped to address the growing disease burden caused by NCDs (Non-Communicable Diseases).

The correct answer is 1 only.

• GDP deflator is an index number which measures inflation.Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• When GDP is calculated in a country, it is measured at current years prices called Nominal GDP, which includes inflation. To remove this anomaly and to find the real growth according to the base year, Nominal GDP is divided by GDP deflator to get the value of Real GDP.
• It is used to get the value of Real GDP from Nominal GDP. Hence, statement 2 is NOT correct.

• The GDP deflator, also known as the implicit price deflator, is used to measure inflation. It is used to determine the levels of prices of the new, domestically produced final goods and services in a country in a year.
• GDP deflector shows the changes in the average price levels in the economy, and therefore, it is used in conjunction with the Consumer Price Index (CPI) for measuring inflation.
• GDP deflator consists of two important components which are nominal GDP and real GDP
• Nominal GDP is the monetary value of all the goods and services produced in an economy and is valued at current prices, while the real GDP shows the monetary value of all the finished goods and services in an economy calculated at constant prices.

For calculating GDP deflator, the following steps are necessary

• Determine the nominal GDP
• Determine the real GDP
• Find the GDP Deflator
• GDP deflator formula can be represented as
• GDP deflator = Nominal GDP / Real GDP × 100
• Like other price indices such as CPI, GDP deflector is not formed on a fixed basket of goods and services. The basket is altered every year depending on people’s investment and consumption patterns for that year.

The correct answer is 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.

• Exchange rate is the price of foreign currency (USD, Yen, Euro, Pound etc) in terms of domestic currency (rupee) i.e. amount of domestic currency needed to buy one unit of foreign currency.
• Exchange rate tells us the value of domestic currency in relation to one unit of foreign currency.

The exchange rate depends upon many factors. They are:

• Inflation
• Interest rates in the country and global majors like USA
• International commodity prices
• Political stability
• Forex reserves with RBI
• Growth rate of the economy
• Future potential
• Foreign trade profile which includes import dependency
• Monetary policy of countries like USA
• External debt levels, particularly the short-term commercial debt level
• The extent of convertibility of the currency
• Fiscal and Current account deficits

The Correct Answer is Fiscal Policy.

• Fiscal policy refers to the use of government spending and tax policies to influence economic conditions.
• Fiscal policy is largely based on ideas from John Maynard Keynes, who argued governments could stabilize the business cycle and regulate economic output.
• During a recession, the government may employ expansionary fiscal policy by lowering tax rates to increase aggregate demand and fuel economic growth.
• When inflation mounts, the government may pursue a contractionary fiscal policy.

The correct answer is Neither a nor b.

• In December 1982, Dr. Manmohan Singh, the then Governor of the RBI, appointed a Committee under the Chairmanship of Sukhamoy Chakravarty to review the functioning of the monetary system in India. (Note: it's the RBI who appointed and not Govt of India). Hence statement a is not correct.
• The Committee was assigned major terms of reference as follows :
  • To critically review the structure and operation of the monetary system in the context of the basic objectives of planned development.
  • To assess the interaction between monetary policy and public debt management in so far as they have a bearing on the effectiveness of the monetary policy.
  • To evaluate the various instruments of monetary and credit policy in terms of their impact on the credit system and on the economy. In this context, links among the banking sector, the non-banking financial institutions, and the unorganised sector could be assessed.
  • To recommend measures for improvement in the formulation and operation of monetary and credit policies and to suggest specific areas where the various policy instruments need strengthening.
  • To make such other recommendations as the Committee may deem relevant to the effective operation of monetary and credit policy.
• The Committee submitted its report in 1985. Hence statement b is not correct.

The correct answer is 75%.

• The assets in India of every banking company at the close of business on the last Friday of every quarter or, if that Friday is a public holiday under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 (26 of 1881), at the close of the business on the preceding working day, shall not be less than seventy-five percent. 

• Every banking company shall, within one month from the end of every quarter, submit to the Reserve Bank a return in the pre­scribed form and manner of the assets and liabilities referred to in sub-section
  • as at the close of business on the last Friday of the previous quarter, or, if that Friday is a public holiday under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 (26 of 1881) at the close of business on the preceding working day.
• Banking Regulation Act, 1949:-
  • Banking ​means accepting, for the purpose of lending or investment, of deposits of money from the public, repayable on demand or otherwise, and withdrawal by cheque, draft, order, or other wise.
  • It was enacted on 10 March 1949 and provides a regulatory framework for commercial banks. 
  • This act empowers RBI to regulate commercial banks.

The incorrect statement is b and c only.

• The Reserve Bank of India was established on April 1, 1935, in accordance with the provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. Hence statement b incorrect.
• The bank was set up based on the recommendations of the 1926 Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance, also known as the Hilton–Young Commission.
• The Central Office of the Reserve Bank was initially established in Kolkata but was permanently moved to Mumbai in 1937. The Central Office is where the Governor sits and where policies are formulated.
• Though originally privately owned, since nationalisation on 1 January 1949, the Reserve Bank is fully owned by the Government of India. Hence statement c incorrect.

Main Functions of RBI:

• Monetary Authority: 
  • Formulates, implements and monitors the monetary policy.
  • Objective: maintaining price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.
• Regulator and supervisor of the financial system:
  • Prescribes broad parameters of banking operations within which the country's banking and financial system functions.
  • Objective: maintain public confidence in the system, protect depositors' interest and provide cost-effective banking services to the public.
• Manager of Foreign Exchange:
  • Manages the Foreign Exchange according to the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999.
  • Objective: to facilitate external trade and payment and promote orderly development and maintenance of the foreign exchange market in India.
• The issuer of the currency :
  • Issues and exchanges currency and destroys currency and coins that are not fit for circulation.
  • Objective: to give the public an adequate quantity of supplies of currency notes and coins and in good quality.
• Developmental role :
  • Performs a wide range of Developmental functions to support national objectives.
• Regulator and Supervisor of Payment and Settlement Systems :
  • Introduces and upgrades safe and efficient modes of payment systems in the country to meet the requirements of the public at large.
  • Objective: maintain public confidence in the payment and settlement system.
• Other Functions :
  • Banker to the Government: performs merchant banking function for the central and the state governments; also acts as their banker
  • Banker to banks: maintains banking accounts of all scheduled banks.

The correct answer is ​a and b only.

• The Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership is a free trade agreement.
• Statement is C is not correct as the member countries include-

• Recently, India exited After long negotiations,  saying it wanted to protect its economy from rising trade deficits with a number of RCEP members.
• The RCEP has left a special window open for India to rejoin at a future date.
• India had previously signed an FTA with the Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN), and also with Japan and South Korea, all three of which are now under revision.

• South Asian Free Trade Area-
  • The South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA) is the free trade arrangement of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC).
  • The agreement came into force in 2006, succeeding the 1993 SAARC Preferential Trading Arrangement.
  • SAFTA signatory countries are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka.

The correct answer is fiscal policy.

• Fiscal policy is concerned with the government’s taxation and public expenditure.
• Fiscal policy is how a government adjusts its spending levels and tax rates to monitor and influence a nation's economy.
• It is the sister strategy to monetary policy through which a central bank influences a nation's money supply.

• Financial policies, which are adopted by the legislative body, provide written guidance for how local government officials and staff should approach fiscal issues and core financial areas.
  • It is related to the regulation, supervision, and oversight of the financial and payment systems, including markets and institutions.
  • The view of policies is in promoting financial stability, market efficiency, and client-asset and consumer protection.
  • Financial Management takes financial decisions under three main categories namely, investment decisions, financing decisions, and dividend decisions.
• Fiscal reform refers to a wide range of structural adjustments to a country’s fiscal system, particularly taxation models and fiscal incentives.
  • It can reflect the true values and importance of biodiversity and ecosystem services in national economies.
• Financial reforms are introduced in the bank to remove the deficiencies of the banking sectors in India.
  • The main intent of reforms is to uphold a diversified, efficient, and competitive financial system with the aim of improving the allocative efficiency of resources through operational flexibility, improved financial viability and institutional solidification.

The correct answer is Solution to declining child sex ratio and empowerment of girl child.

• The 'Beti Bachao Beti Padhao' scheme is related to the solution of falling child sex ratio in India and empowering girls.

• It is noteworthy that this scheme was started by the Central Government on 22 January 2015.
• The benefit of this scheme is to keep the sex ratio of boys and girls in balance.
• Madhuri Dixit has been made the brand ambassador to promote the propagation of this scheme.
• Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao is a campaign of the Government of India that aims to generate awareness and improve the efficiency of welfare services intended for girls in India.
• The scheme was launched with initial funding of ₹100 crores (US$14 million).