Explore topic-wise InterviewSolutions in Current Affairs.

This section includes 7 InterviewSolutions, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Current Affairs knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

With which of the following sports is Sakshi Malik associated?A. BoxingB. WeightliftingC. WrestlingD. Hockey

Answer» Correct Answer - C
2.

Mention the weight and circumference of the Table Tennis ball?

Answer»

The weight of Table Tennis ball is not less than 2.40 gm. and not more than 2.53 gm. Its diameter is not more than 38.2 mm, and not less than 37.2 mm.

3.

The game similar to tennis, played by hitting a small object with feathers on it over a net is ______. A) table-tennis B) badminton C) basketball D) volleyball

Answer»

Correct option is B) badminton

4.

Mention the length and height of the net of Table Tennis, game?

Answer»

The net is 183 cms. in length. Its upper part is at the height of 15.25 cms. from the playing surface.

5.

How is the game of Table Tennis started?

Answer»

A player who wins the toss decides for the service and loser for the side of the table.

6.

Which of the following judgements dealing with Fundamental Rights was  last in chronological order ?1. Golaknath v/s State of Punjab2. Keshwanand Bharti v/s State of Kerala3. Minerva Mills v/s Union of India4. A. K. Gopalan v/s State of Madras

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Minerva Mills v/s Union of India

Judgements

About

Golaknath v. State Of Punjab  

  • Golaknath v. State Of Punjab  was a 1967 Indian Supreme Court case, in which the Court ruled that Parliament could not curtail any of the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution.
  • The judgement reversed Supreme Court's earlier decision which had upheld Parliament's power to amend all parts of the Constitution, including Part III related to Fundamental Rights. The judgement left Parliament with no power to curtail Fundamental Rights

The Kesavananda Bharati  vs State of Kerala

  • The Kesavananda Bharati  and Ors. v. State of Kerala 1973 was a landmark decision of the Supreme Court of India that outlined the basic structure doctrine of the Constitution.
  • The Supreme Court reviewed the decision in Golaknath v. State of Punjab, and considered the validity of the 24th, 25th, 26th and 29th amendments.
  • The case was heard by the largest ever Constitution Bench of 13 Judges. The bench gave eleven separate judgements, which agreed on some points and differed on others

Minerva Mills vs Union Of

  • Minerva Mills vs Union Of India 1977 was a landmark decision of the Supreme Court of India that applied and evolved the basic structure doctrine of the Constitution of India.
  • There shall be no limitation whatever on the constituent power of Parliament to amend by way of addition, variation or repeal the provisions of this Constitution under this article.

A K Gopalan vs state of madras

  • A K Gopalan v State of Madras 1950was a significant decision because it represented the first case where the court meaningfully examined and interpreted key fundamental rights enlisted in the constitution including article 19 and 21.
7.

Which of The following statements are correct in regarding to Indian Constituent assembly?1) It was not based on Adult franchise.2) It resulted from direct elections.3) It was not a multi-party body.4) It Worked through several committees.Select the correct answer using code given below-1. (A) and (D)2. (A) and (B)3. (B) and (C)4. (A), (B), (C) and (D)

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : (A) and (D)
  • The Constituent Assembly of India was elected to write the Constitution of India.
  • An idea for a Constituent Assembly was proposed in 1934 by M. N. Roy, a pioneer of the Communist movement in India.
  • The members of the Constituent Assembly were elected by the provincial assemblies by a single, transferable-vote system of proportional representation.
  • The total membership of the Constituent Assembly was 389 of which 292 were representatives of the states, 93 represented the princely states and four were from the chief commissioner provinces of Delhi, Ajmer-Merwara, Coorg and British Baluchistan.
  • The Constituent Assembly of India, consisting of indirectly elected representatives, was established to draft a constitution for India.
  • The Assembly was not elected on the basis of universal adult suffrage, and Muslims and Sikhs received special representation as minorities.
  •  It was a multi-party body and it Worked through several committees and Committees presented reports on issues.

8.

One type of rich, soft, plush cloth is ______

Answer»

Correct option is velvet

9.

How many points are there in a game of Table Tennis?

Answer»

A player or pair who scores first 21 points shall win the game. If both the players or pairs score 20 points, then that player or pair shall be winner who scores 2 point before the other player or pair.

10.

The age of Judge of the Supreme court of India shall be determined by such authority and in such manner as Parliament may by laws provide." inserted by1. 15th constitution Amendment 2. 16th constitution Amendment 3. 17th constitution Amendment 4. 18th constitution Amendment

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : 15th constitution Amendment 
  • 15th constitution Amendment Act, 1963
  • Amendment of article 124.-In article 124 of the Constitution, after clause (2), the following clause shall be inserted, namely:-
  • "(2A) The age of a Judge of the Supreme Court shall be determined by such authority and in such manner as Parliament may by law provide.".
  • Amendment of article 128.-In article 128 of the Constitution, after the words "Federal Court", the words "or who has held the office of a Judge of a High Court and is duly qualified for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court" shall be inserted.
  •  Amendment of article 217.-In article 217 of the Constitution,-- (a) in clause (1), for the words "sixty years", the words "sixty-two years" shall be substituted;
11.

Himanshu is practicing to type on a notepad. By mistake, he has written a wrong spelling. Now, he wants to delete the wrongly typed word from the left side of the cursor. Which key he will use to accomplish the task? a. Delete b. Backspace c. Return d. Pause

Answer»

 Correct answer is b. Backspace

12.

How shall we judge the correctness of the Table Tennis ball?

Answer»

When the Table Tennis ball is thrown downward from the height of 3.05 metres; it should bounce not less than 22 cms. and not more the 25 cms.

13.

It’s a nice day, ______? A) isn’t it B) doesn’t it C) was it D) wasn’t it

Answer»

Correct option is A) isn’t it

14.

The war ______ in 1939. A) start B) will start C) is startingD) started

Answer»

Correct option is D) started

15.

In 1939, when World War II broke out, which viceroy declared that India would take part in the battle?

Answer»

Lord Linlithgow

16.

Which of the following countries is trying to get membership of European Union?A. MyanmarB. BrazilC. CroatinaD. Italy

Answer» Correct Answer - C
Croatia and Turkey started accession talks on 3 October, 2005. Turkey could complete them in 10-15 years, but Croatia is set to join the EU in mid-2013.
17.

BSE (Bombay Stock Exchange), the oldest stock exchange in Asia has joined hands with one more international index in February 2013. This association has a resulted in change of name of BSE index. What is the change of name effected?A. Dow Jones BSE IndexB. NASDAQ BSE IndexC. S and P BSE IndexD. Euronext BSE Index

Answer» Correct Answer - C
On 19 February 2013 BSE entered into Strategoc Partnership with S&P Dow Jones indices and the SENSEX was renamed as "S&P BSE Sensex." It will use the S&P brand for Sensex and the other indices.
18.

This is also called “the robe of wool yardage” came from 15th century Persia. Sultan Zain-Al-Abedin summoned weavers from Turkemnistan to teach the craft to Kashmiris. Patterns include rega buta (little flowers), kirk butis (large flowers) and jaldars (patterns created using net). Napoleon gifted 17 of them to his second wife Marie Louis. Name the shawl

Answer»

Correct Answer is Jamawar

19.

In 2006, the first issue of Ramayana 3392 AD was published by Virgin Comics as envisioned by two well-known Indian personalities. One of them is the author Deepak Chopra, can you name the other?

Answer»

Shekhar Kapur

20.

Write any two member countries of NAM.

Answer»

India, Indonesia, Ghana, Egypt.

21.

Separation of the Judiciary from the Executive is enjoined by : (a) Preamble (b) Directive Principle (c) Seventh Schedule (d) Judicial Decision

Answer»

(b) Directive Principle

22.

The separation of the judiciary from the executive is envisaged in the(a) Preamble(b) Directive Principles(c) Objectives Resolution(d) Fundamental Rights

Answer»

The separation of the judiciary from the executive is envisaged in the  Directive Principles

23.

Which of the following concerning gamma cameras are true? a. The primary purpose of the collimator is to filter out low-energy gamma rays b. Photo multipliers convert light into photo electrons c. The pulse height analyser reduces noise d. Low-energy gamma rays result from photoelectric absorption in the crystal and patient e. Spatial resolution can be improved by using collimators with wider holes

Answer»

a. False. The primary function of the collimator is to delineate the gamma source. 

b. True. Each photo multiplier consists of a photo cathode that absorbs light and emits photo electrons. These are accelerated towards an anode and multiply on the way by colliding with dynodes. 

c. True. Gamma rays as a result of scatter have a low energy, which is filtered out by the pulse height analyser. 

d. False. Low-energy gamma rays result from Compton attenuation in the patient and crystal. 

e. False. Spatial resolution is improved by using collimators with narrower and longer holes

24.

Regarding the crystal used in gamma cameras: a. It is usually made of NaI due to its robust qualities b. It absorbs gamma rays mainly by photoelectric absorption c. The absorption of a single gamma proton results in the production of a single light photon d. Using a thicker crystal improves intrinsic resolution e. A crack in the crystal results in a linear defect on a uniform background

Answer»

a. False. The crystal used in gamma cameras is usually made up of NaI but is fragile and can be damaged by both water and heat. 

b. True. As a result of photoelectric absorption, the crystal absorbs the majority of gamma rays from Tc-99m. 

c. False. The absorption of a single gamma photon produces thousands of light photons, which spread out in all directions. 

d. False. Using a thicker crystal improves sensitivity but reduces intrinsic resolution. 

e. True. A sheet phantom (filled with Co-57) is used to test the detector, which should give a uniform response to a uniform field. A defective photo multiplier is seen as reduced counts, and a cracked crystal shows a linear defect.

25.

How many members of the security council have the right to veto?(a) 5 (b) 15 (c) 10 (d) 20

Answer»

5 members of the security council have the right to veto

26.

Concerning the sensitivity of gamma cameras (system sensitivity): a. It is a function of both intrinsic and collimator efficiency b. At high keV, the intrinsic sensitivity is almost 100% c. Using a thicker crystal increases sensitivity d. It is measured using a bar test e. It is expressed as total counts per second per mega becquerel of activity (cps MBq-1 )

Answer»

a. True. 

b. False. Below 100 keV, the intrinsic sensitivity is almost 100%, above which it depends on the thickness of the crystal. 

c. True. Using a thicker crystal improves sensitivity but reduces spatial resolution. 

d. False. Sensitivity is measured using a known amount of activity in a small source. 

e. True. 

27.

Which of these statements are true? a. The number of measurements for reconstruction is dependent on the number of detectors b. Filter back projection is the most common image reconstruction technique used c. In filter back projection, the effect of the neighbouring beam on each pixel is directly proportional to their distance d. The partial volume effect is greater in spiral CT e. Helical/spiral CT needs more heat capacity

Answer»

a. True. Number of measurements for reconstruction of the image = number of detectors number of scans at 360°

b. True. 

c. False. The effect of the neighbouring beam is inversely proportional to the distance. 

d. False. The advantages of helical/spiral CT are: high speed, reduced misregistration, continuous data acquisition, a single exposure and reduced partial volume effect. In spiral CT, less contrast medium is required but more heat loading or capacity is needed. 

e. True.

28.

Skill of archery was the test in the swayamvara of1. Parvati2. Gouri3. Meenakshi4. Draupadi

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : Draupadi

The correct answer is Draupadi.

  • The skill of archery was the test in the swayamvara of Draupadi.
  • Drishtadyumna, the brother of Draupadi announced that whosoever can bend the bow and pierce the eye of the fish will marry Draupadi.
  • Arjuna (one of the five Pandavas) succeeded in piercing while looking only at its reflection in the water below.
  • Hence an archer definitely got due importance and Arjuna being an archer superior to others won the Gurudakshina war and unknowingly became the root cause of Draupadi’s birth.
29.

In mammography: a. A low tube potential is needed because of the small irradiated tissue b. The film has a smaller latitude compared with general radiography c. The screen is made of caesium iodide d. Single-sided emulsion is used on the inner side of the film e. The principal interaction is the photoelectric effect with L-shell electrons

Answer»

a. False. A low tube potential is needed to maximize the low-contrast subject. 

b. True. In mammography, there is not much difference between the different tissues imaged. Therefore, mammography film has a small latitude, i.e. the range of exposure needed to cover the grey scale is reduced, so that a small change in exposure gives an enhanced change in blackening of the film. This means that mammography film has a very steep linear part of the sensitometric curve. 

c. False. It is made of rare earth materials. 

d. False. Single-sided emulsion is used on the distal side of the film. 

e. True.

30.

Which Indian has won the Nobel Memorial Prize in Economics?1. C.V.Raman2. Amartya Sen3. Kailash Satyarthi4. Har Gobind Khorana

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Amartya Sen

The correct answer is Amartya Sen.

  • In 1913 Rabindranath Tagore (literature) became the first Indian to win the Nobel.
  • Sir C V Raman was awarded the prestigious Nobel Prize in Physics in the year 1930 for giving a detailed description and reason for the scattering of particles of light.
  • In 2014, Kailash Satyarthi received the Nobel Prize for his rights in 'Child Labor Abolition and Education'.
  • Har Gobind Khurana, who won the Nobel in 1968, worked on the electron.
  • Khurana received the Nobel for his role in the genetic code and its protein synthesis.​

  •  The "Nobel Prize" was instituted in 1901 by the "Nobel Foundation" in memory of Swedish scientist Alfred Nobel.
  • It is the world's highest award in the fields of peace, literature, physics, chemistry, medical science, and economics.
  • The Nobel Prize in Economics was started in "1968".
  • "Dynamite" was invented by "Alfred Nobel".
31.

Regarding spatial resolution: a. CT has a better spatial resolution compared with film-screen radiography b. It is 3–5 line pairs mm-1 in digital imaging c. It depends on the width of the projection path d. The source-to-detector distance affects unsharpness but not the spatial resolution e. If the matrix is 512 x 512 and the field of view is 60 cm, then the spatial resolution would be 4 line pairs mm-1 

Answer»

a. False. The spatial resolution in CT is 20 line pairs cm-1 while in film-screen radiography it is 8–12 line pairs mm-1 

b. True. 

c. True. Spatial resolution in CT depends on the following: 

  • The matrix and field of view 
  • An algorithm: like bone reconstruction, this enhances the edge of high-contrast structures and increases the spatial resolution at the cost of increased noise 
  • The width of the projection path, which is affected by focal spot size/source to isocentre and source to detector distance/size of the sensitive area of the detector 
  • The number of projections sampled in each rotation. In the z direction, this depends on slice thickness or pitch: the higher the pitch, the less the spatial resolution. This effect is less important in a multi-slice scanner. 

d. False. 

e. True. Spatial resolution = 1/(2 pixel size) and pixel size = field of view/matrix = 1/(2 60/512) = 4.3; therefore, the spatial resolution is around 4 line pairs mm-1

32.

Which of the following are true regarding spatial resolution? a. Intrinsic resolution refers to resolution from the camera and collimator b. The addition of a collimator decreases intrinsic resolution further c. The larger the patient, the worse the spatial resolution d. Spatial resolution can be tested using a bar test pattern e. Spatial resolution can be tested by imaging a line source

Answer»

a. False. Intrinsic resolution refers to the camera in the absence of the collimator. 

b. True. 

c. True. The larger the patient, the greater the amount of attenuation and scatter, resulting in reduced spatial resolution. 

d. True. This is made up of lead stripes on a uniform sheet source. 

e. True. This usually consists of a tube containing Tc-99m.

33.

Regarding CT: a. In scanograms, the scatter is high and spatial resolution is poor b. CT fluoroscopy is a low kV technique in which the table does not move c. In CT fluoroscopy, both the effective dose and the skin dose are less than in normal CT d. A scanogram is another name for a scout view e. CT fluoroscopy is used for biopsy needle placement

Answer»

a. False. In scanograms (topograms), the scatter is minimal and spatial resolution is poor. 

b. True. In CT fluoroscopy, the gantry rotates 180° without the table moving, and it is a low kV technique. 

c. False. In CT fluoroscopy the effective dose is less but the skin dose is higher because it is confined to a narrow region. 

d. True. A scanogram is another name for a scout view.

e. True.

34.

Regarding targets and filters in mammography: a. The Rh–Mo target–filter combination is used for thicker breast tissue b. Using a Rh filter with a Mo target increases the mean and peak photon energy of the spectrum compared with Mo–Mo c. Rh produces a characteristic radiation slightly lower than Mo d. The combination of W–Rh has the best contrast e. In the Mo–Mo combination, the dose is higher than in other combinations

Answer»

a. False. The combination of Rh-Mo is not used, because the effect of the filter would be to attenuate the Rh characteristic radiation with energy that is just greater than the K-edge of Mo. 

b. False. Use of a Mo–Rh combination increases the mean energy of the spectrum, because it will transmit Bremsstrahlung photons in the energy range just below 23.2 keV, thus increasing the beam penetration, but peak photon energy is determined by the tube potential and the target material does not affect this. 

c. False. The characteristic radiation of Rh is 23.2 keV and Mo is 20 keV. 

d. False. Contrast in different target–filter combinations decreases as follows: Mo–Mo > Mo–Rh > Rh–Rh > W–Rh. 

e. True. The dose in different target–filter combinations decreases as follows: Mo–Mo > Mo–Rh > Rh–Rh > W–Rh.

35.

Who among the following was a founder of the Natal Indian Congress?1. Motilal Nehru2. Bal Gangadhar Tilak3. Raja Ram Mohan Roy4. Mahatma Gandhi

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : Mahatma Gandhi

The correct answer is Mahatma Gandhi.

Natal Indian Congress was founded by Mahatma Gandhi (father of Nation) in 1894.

Name of OrganisationFounder
Gadar PartyLala Hardayal and Kashiram.
Brahmo SamajRaja Ram Mohan Roy.
Ram Krishna MissionSwami Vivekananda.
Arya SamajSwami Dayananda Saraswati.
Forward BlockNetaji Subash Chandra Bose.
Indian National CongressA. O. Hume.
Hindu MahasabhaMadan Mohan Malviya.
Home Rule leagueAnnie Besant and Bal Gangadhar Tilak.
Vishwa BhartiRabindranath Tagore.
Abhinav BharatVeer Savarkar.

 

36.

Regarding mammography units: a. Spatial resolution is 8–10 line pairs mm-1 b. The anode is on the chest wall side c. The focal spot size for the magnified view is 0.3 mm d. The axial ray is directed to the centre of the X-ray fielde. The focus-to-film distance (FFD) is fixed in mammography

Answer»

a. False. Spatial resolution is 15 line pairs mm-1 or above. 

b. False. The cathode is on the chest wall side. 

c. False. For the magnified view, the smaller focal spot size is used, which is 0.1–0.15 mm. The larger one (0.4 mm) is for the standard view. 

d. False. The tube is angled so that the axial ray is at the chest wall edge; this helps to produce films with a more uniform density. 

e. True. Unlike general X-ray equipment, the distance between the tube head and the film cannot usually be varied. This is because the set is designed for a single examination and the focus-to-film distance used is considered the optimum. The normal FFD is 65 or 66 cm.

37.

Regarding the dose and dose measurement in mammography: a. The dose and breast thickness are directly proportional b. In a single-sided screen, the resolution is better but a higher dose is required c. Automatic exposure control (AEC) terminates the exposure after a fixed dose to the detector d. By varying kV, a greater dose saving can be made for the same loss in contrast, in comparison with changing the target–filter combination e. The entrance surface dose (ESD) is proportional to tube kV2

Answer»

a. False. For larger breasts, the doses are much higher than for average breasts, as there is a greater thickness of material for the radiation to penetrate and so more is absorbed. Also, loss of reciprocity in the film means even larger doses are needed to achieve the right film density. However, the dose is not linear and rises more steeply after about 6 cm.

b. True. A back screen means that, as most interactions still take place at the edge of the screen nearest to the radiation source, the film is nearer the interaction, i.e. light source, and the light does not spread out as much, giving a better resolution. By using single-sided film, the emulsion is in direct contact with the screen and the resolution is therefore as good as possible. However, use of a single screen and single-sided emulsion means than a higher dose is required than if doubled-sided film with two screens were used. 

c. False. Due to beam hardening, the amount of radiation dose reaching the detector varies with breast thickness and composition. If the AEC worked by detecting a fixed dose, film density would vary with breast variation. 

d. False. By varying the kV, you can reduce the dose and exposure time. However, by changing the target–filter combination, a greater dose saving can be made for the same loss in contrast, or a lower loss in contrast can be achieved for the same dose decrease. 

e. False. Increasing the kV does increase the output of the X-ray tube and the ESD, but output at mammographic energies is roughly proportional to kV3 . In general radiography, output is approximately proportional to kV2 .

38.

Who won the gold medal at Women's National Boxing Championships in 2019?1. Ragini Upadhyay2. Nikhat Zareen3. Manju Rani4. Pinki Rani Jangra

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Manju Rani

The correct answer is Manju Rani.

  • Manju Rani won the gold medal at the Women's National Boxing Championships in 2019.

  •  XIth AIBA women's World Boxing championship 2019 was held in Ulan-Ude in Russia.
  • It is the elite women's Boxing championship which is organized by AIBA.
  • India was ranked ninth in the medal tally.
  • Manju Rani won in the 48kg light flyweight category defeating Russia's Ekaterina Paltceva to win the silver medal.
  • In the 54 kg category, Jamuna Boro defeated Chinese Taipei's Huang Hsiao-Wen to win the bronze medal.
  • MC Mary Kom in 51 kg category 1 bronze medal defeating Turkey's Busenaz Cakiroglu.
  • Manju Rani became the first Indian boxer after 18 years to reach the finals on debut.

 

  •  Women's National Boxing Championships was founded in 1946.
  • Its headquarters are in Lausanne, Switzerland. 

  • Pinki Rani Jangra is a flyweight Indian boxer from Haryana.
    • ​She won a bronze medal in the 2014 Commonwealth Games.
    • She won a gold medal at the President's Cup International Boxing in Palembang, South Sumatra, Indonesia, in 2015.
  • Nikhat Zareen is an Indian amateur woman boxer.
    • She won the gold medal at the AIBA Women's Youth & Junior World Championships Antalya 2011.
    • She won the bronze medal at the 2nd India Open International Boxing Tournament held in Guwahati.
39.

Which of the following are typical features of a mammography set? a. The automatic exposure control (AEC) detector is placed behind the cassetteb. The anode does not rotate c. Multiple targets and filters are used d. A variable field size is used e. A small-field digital system is used for stereo localization 

Answer»

a. True. In general radiography, the AEC detector is normally placed between the patient and the film. However, if this were the case in mammography, the AEC device would be visible on the images and for this reason, the AEC detector is placed behind the cassette. 

b. False. If the anode did not rotate, it would not cope with being heated. 

c. True. 

d. False. Mammographic equipment has fixed field sizes, normally 18 x 24 cm and 24 x 30 cm. 

e. True. Small-field digital technology is now the standard method used for stereo localization. When a small-field digital system is used for stereo localization, the image is normally available within 30 s of the exposure and no film handling is required. This significantly reduces the procedure time, which means that movement of the patient is a much smaller issue. It also reduces the total time for the procedure.

40.

Who authored the book 'Working a Democratic Constitution'?1. Granville Austin2. Robert Hardgrave3. Morris Jones4. Rajani Kothari

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : Granville Austin

The correct answer is ​Granville Austin.

  • The book 'Working a Democratic Constitution' was authored by the Granville Austin.

  • About the book 'Working a Democratic Constitution':
    • ​​This important book offers critical insights into four decades of the Indian Constitution.
    • It charts the course of constitutional reform in India from the euphoric idealism of the post-independence period, through the crisis years of emergency, and up to Rajiv Gandhi's brief stay in power.
    • It is intended as a story of how the social, political, and day-to-day-life realities of the Indian people have been reflected in, and in turn directed the course of, constitutional reforms in the country.
    • Austin’s book is a must-read for anyone who would like the answer to the question that how is India still on track?

  • About the author Granville Austin:
    • Granville Austin was an American historian.
    • Austin is the author of two primary political histories of the constitution of India:
      • The Indian Constitution: Cornerstone of a Nation and 
      • Working a Democratic Constitution: The Indian Experience.
41.

‘Becoming’ is a book authored by:1. Oprah Winfrey2. Donald Trump3. Barack Obama4. Michelle Obama

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : Michelle Obama

The correct answer is Michelle Obama.

Some important Books and Authors:-

BooksAuthor
BecomingMichelle Obama.
What I know for SureOprah Winfrey.
Time to get tough: Make America Great AgainDonald Trump.
Dreams from my FatherBarack Obama.
Pride and Prejudice, Sense and Sensibility, Persuasion, EmmaJane Austen.
Courts of IndiaRanjan Gogoi (Chief Justice of India).
Hemant Karkare: A Daughter's MemoirJui Karkare.
Exam WarriorsNarendra Modi.
Bridgital NationN. Chandrasekaran.
WhereaboutsJhumpa Lahiri.
In search of the DistanceAnuk Arudpragasam.
The Heartbeat of TreesPeter Wohlleben.
The Loves of YuriJerry Pinto.
WaterMridula Ramesh.

 

42.

Which of the following are true with regard to isotopes of a given element? a. They have the same number of nucleons b. They have the same atomic mass c. They differ in densities d. They have the same number of protons but a different number of electrons e. They have the same position on the periodic table

Answer»

a. False. Nucleon is a collective term for neutrons and protons. Isotopes of the same element have the same number of protons but a different number of neutrons. 

b. False. Atomic mass is equal to the number of protons and neutrons in a nucleus. Isotopes differ in the number of neutrons and therefore have different atomic mass numbers. 

c. True. Isotopes differ in many of their physical properties including their densities. 

d. False. The number of orbiting electrons (negative charge) is equal to the number of protons (positive charge). 

e. True. Elements are positioned in the periodic table according to their atomic number (number of protons), which remains the same for isotopes of the same element.

43.

The book ‘Wings of Fire’ is authored by:1. Salman Rushdie2. A.P.J Abdul Kalam3. R.K Narayan4. Vikram Seth

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : A.P.J Abdul Kalam

The correct answer is A.P.J Abdul Kalam.

  • The book ‘Wings of Fire’ is authored by A.P.J Abdul Kalam.

  • The book was written by Dr. Abdul Kalam and Arun Tiwari.
  • His full name is Avul Pakir Jainulabdeen Abdul Kalam.
  • He served as the 11th President of India from 2002 to 2007.
  • He also helped to establish the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre and pioneered the first space launch vehicle program.
  • He is known as the Missile Man of India.

 

  • Rasipuram Krishnaswami Iyer Narayanaswami (R.K Narayan) was a writer famously known for his work set in the fictional South Indian town of Malgudi.
  • Salman Rushdie won the Man Booker Prize in the year 1981 for his novel Midnight's Children.
  • Vikram Seth is known for his novel A Suitable Boy.
44.

Which of the following statements are correct, when referring to an atom? a. The valence shell is responsible for radioactivity b. Radioactivity results from an imbalance in the number of protons and electrons c. All atoms have an equal number of protons and neutrons d. Neutrons have a negative charge e. Radon contributes to our background radiation 

Answer»

a. False. The valence shell is the outer electron shell and influences the chemical and thermal properties of an atom. Radioactivity involves the nucleus. 

b. False. Radioactivity occurs as a result of unstable nuclei (radio nuclide) that have an excess or deficit of neutrons. 

c. False. For example, hydrogen has one proton only and no neutrons. 

d. False. Neutrons have no charge. Protons have a positive charge and electrons have a negative charge. 

e. True. Radon is an example of a naturally occurring radio nuclide.

45.

The production of radio nuclides can involve: a. The addition of a neutron into a stable nucleus b. Capturing a negative electron from the K-shell (electron capture) c. Addition of a proton into the nucleus using a nuclear reactor d. The use of a cyclotron e. Removal of electrons from the inner shell

Answer»

a. True. This is one of the methods by which radio nuclides are produced. The process takes place in a nuclear reactor. 

b. False. Electron capture is a form of radioactive decay. 

c. False. The forceful addition of a proton into the nucleus causing the ejection of a neutron is also one of the methods by which radio nuclides are produced. However, this process takes place in a cyclotron, which accelerates charged particles, e.g. protons, onto the target material. 

d. True. 

e. False. Radioactivity involves the nucleus.

46.

Concerning radio nuclide production: a. Radio nuclides used in medicine are generally found naturally b. In a cyclotron, protons are forced into the nucleus c. In a nuclear reactor, the addition of a neutron into the nucleus results in an increase in atomic number d. Radio nuclides produced in a cyclotron can be separated from the stable (carrier) element e. Radio nuclides produced in a nuclear reactor by neutron capture alone can be separated from the stable (carrier) element

Answer»

a. False. Radio nuclides used in medicine are produced artificially. 

b. True. A cyclotron accelerates protons (and other charged particles) onto the target material, resulting in the addition of the proton into the nucleus, causing a neutron to be ejected. 

c. False. Atomic number is equal to the number of protons, which is unchanged in this particular process unless the addition of a neutron causes nuclear instability and the expulsion of a proton, in which case the atomic number will decrease. 

d. True. Radio nuclides produced in a cyclotron can be separated from their carrier as they have different atomic numbers and hence different chemical properties. 

e. False. Radio nuclides produced in a nuclear reactor by neutron capture cannot be separated from the stable compound (carrier) as they have the same atomic number and hence the same chemical properties.

47.

Regarding radioactive decay: a. K-electron capture is a type of radioactive decay process b. It is a stochastic process c. It can occur following an increase in electron numbers d. It results in absorption of energy from the surrounding atoms e. It always results in a stable daughter nucleus

Answer»

a. True. Neutron deficient radio nuclides increase their number of neutrons relative to protons by capturing an electron from the K-shell.

b. True. 

c. False. Radioactive decay occurs due to the nuclei being unstable as a result of either an excess or a deficiency in the number of neutrons or protons. 

d. False. Radioactive decay is not an energy-dependent process and occurs independently.

e. False. Although radioactive decay can result in a stable daughter nucleus, a metastable or unstable daughter nucleus may also be formed. 

48.

Concerning exposure controls: a. Automatic exposure control (AEC) can be varied to adjust the optical density of the film b. A faulty AEC detector will usually result in significant overexposure of the patient c. AEC is more likely to ensure the correct exposure when used with collimation d. AEC typically uses five ionization chambers e. All ionization chambers must be used simultaneously

Answer»

a. True. The operator can adjust the AEC to produce an image of a certain optical density, known as the density setting. 

b. False. This should be prevented by a back-up timer, which terminates the exposure if the AEC fails to do so, usually when 150% of expected manual exposure is reached. 

c. True. 

d. False. There are usually three chambers covering different areas of the film. 

e. False. The operator can select which chambers to use depending on the projection.

49.

Concerning the properties of nuclear isomers: a. They have different atomic numbers b. They have the same atomic mass c. They have the same half-life d. They have different energy states e. The meta stable isomer is formed following the release of the gamma ray

Answer»

a. False. In some radio nuclides, following beta decay, the gamma ray is not emitted immediately. The radio nuclides before and after emission of the gamma rays are said to be isomers, which have different energy states and half-lives, but the same atomic and mass numbers. 

b. True. 

c. False. 

d. True. 

e. False. The isomer before the release of the gamma ray is said to be meta stable.

50.

Which of the following are correct with regard to beta-negative (β-) decay? a. It involves the ejection of a positron (positive electron) b. It results in increased atomic number c. It results in increased atomic mass d. It results in a daughter nucleus with a high energy state e. It occurs in a neutron-deficient radio nuclide

Answer»

a. False. Radio nuclides lose energy and become stable in beta decay by a neutron changing to a proton plus an electron. The electron is ejected from the nucleus with high energy and is referred to as a negative beta particle. 

b. True. There is an increase in the number of protons (atomic number). 

c. False. 

d. True. The daughter nucleus is produced with excess energy and loses this as gamma photons. 

e. False. Beta-negative (β-) decay occurs in a radio nuclide with neutron excess.